SAFe-Practitioner dumps with brain dumps are for you if you have no time to read books

killexams.com offers legitimate and forward-thinking SAFe-Practitioner test prep with Actual SAFe 5 Practitioner (SP) Exam Questions and Answers for new subjects of Scrum SAFe-Practitioner Exam. Practice our SAFe-Practitioner brain dumps and Answers to Improve your insight and finish your test with High Marks. We ensure your accomplishment in the Test Center, veiling every one of the subjects of SAFe-Practitioner test and assembling your Knowledge of the SAFe-Practitioner test. Pass 4 sure with our right inquiries.

SAFe-Practitioner SAFe 5 Practitioner (SP) exam Questions | http://babelouedstory.com/

SAFe-Practitioner exam Questions - SAFe 5 Practitioner (SP) Updated: 2024

Searching for SAFe-Practitioner cheatsheet that works in real exam?
Exam Code: SAFe-Practitioner SAFe 5 Practitioner (SP) exam Questions January 2024 by Killexams.com team

SAFe-Practitioner SAFe 5 Practitioner (SP)

Exam Specification: SAFe 5 Practitioner (SP)

Exam Name: SAFe 5 Practitioner
Exam Code: SP
Exam Duration: 90 minutes
Passing Score: 73%
Exam Format: Multiple-choice, multiple-answer

Course Outline:

1. Introduction to SAFe
- Understanding the purpose and benefits of SAFe
- Overview of the SAFe principles and values
- Exploring the SAFe Framework and its key components

2. Agile Release Train
- Understanding the Agile Release Train (ART) and its role in SAFe
- Planning and executing Program Increments (PIs)
- Collaborating with team members and stakeholders within the ART

3. Planning and Executing Iterations
- Understanding the importance of iterations in SAFe
- Planning and executing iterations using the Team Kanban and Scrum processes
- Synchronizing and coordinating activities across multiple teams

4. Agile Product Management
- Applying Lean-Agile principles to product management
- Defining and prioritizing features, stories, and backlog items
- Managing the product backlog and collaborating with stakeholders

5. Agile Development and Quality Practices
- Applying Agile engineering practices to ensure high-quality software development
- Emphasizing continuous integration, test-driven development, and frequent feedback
- Implementing DevOps practices to Strengthen release readiness

6. Scaling Agile
- Scaling Agile principles and practices beyond the team level
- Coordinating and aligning multiple Agile Release Trains (ARTs)
- Managing dependencies and integrating work across ARTs

Exam Objectives:

1. Understand the purpose, benefits, and key components of the SAFe framework.
2. Work effectively within an Agile Release Train (ART) and execute Program Increments (PIs).
3. Plan and execute iterations using Team Kanban and Scrum processes.
4. Apply Lean-Agile principles to Agile product management and prioritize features and backlog items.
5. Implement Agile engineering practices and ensure high-quality software development.
6. Scale Agile practices and coordinate work across multiple Agile Release Trains (ARTs).

Exam Syllabus:

Section 1: Introduction to SAFe (15%)
- Purpose and benefits of SAFe
- SAFe principles and values
- Overview of the SAFe Framework

Section 2: Agile Release Train (ART) (25%)
- Planning and executing Program Increments (PIs)
- Collaboration within the Agile Release Train (ART)
- Roles and responsibilities within the ART

Section 3: Planning and Executing Iterations (20%)
- Importance of iterations in SAFe
- Team Kanban and Scrum processes for iteration planning and execution
- Synchronization and coordination across teams

Section 4: Agile Product Management (20%)
- Applying Lean-Agile principles to product management
- Feature and backlog item prioritization
- Collaboration with stakeholders

Section 5: Agile Development and Quality Practices (15%)
- Agile engineering practices for high-quality software development
- Continuous integration, test-driven development, and feedback
- DevOps practices for improved release readiness

Section 6: Scaling Agile (5%)
- Scaling Agile principles and practices
- Coordinating multiple Agile Release Trains (ARTs)
- Managing dependencies and integration across ARTs
SAFe 5 Practitioner (SP)
Scrum Practitioner exam Questions

Other Scrum exams

PSM-I Professional Scrum Master I - 2023
Scrum-PSM-II Professional Scrum Master II
Scrum-Master-Certified Scrum Master Certified
DASM Disciplined Agile Scrum Master
PAL-I Professional Agile Leadership (PAL-I)
PSK-I Professional Scrum with Kanban level I
PSPO-I Professional Scrum Product Owner I
PSPO-II Professional Scrum Product Owner II
SAFe-DevOps SAFe 5 DevOps Practitioner (SDP)
SAFe-Practitioner SAFe 5 Practitioner (SP)
SSM SAFe 5 Scrum Master (SSM)
SAFe-RTE Certified SAFe Release Train Engineer (RTE)
DASSM Disciplined Agile Senior Scrum Master
PAL-EBM Professional Agile Leadership - Evidence Based Management (PAL-EBM)
Scrum-PSD Professional Scrum Developer (PSD)
Scrum-PSD-I Professional Scrum Developer (PSD-I)
Scrum-SPS Scaled Professional Scrum (SPS)
SAFe-Agilist SAFe-Agilist
SAFe-LPM SAFe 5.1 Lean Portfolio Manager
ASSM SAFe 5 Advanced Scrum Master (SASM)

Generally, good and updated websites offering SAFe-Practitioner dumps are very few. All others are resellers. At killexams.com, we have our own resources to get SAFe-Practitioner real exam questions. Our SAFe-Practitioner exam simulator is best to Strengthen your knowledge about the subjects of SAFe-Practitioner exam. Searching free SAFe-Practitioner PDF on internet is waste of time and money. Keep in mind, there is no good quality thing which is free on internet.
Scrum
SAFe-Practitioner
SAFe 5 Practitioner (SP)
https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/SAFe-Practitioner
Question: 48
By organizing the second operating system around_________ instead of ________, SAFe offers a way for enterprises
to focus on customers, products, innovation, and growth
A. departments, value streams
B. products, features
C. features,components
D. value streams, departments
Answer: D
Question: 49
How long is the Iteration Review?
A. 6 hours
B. 1 day
C. 1 to 2 hours
D. 4 hours
Answer: C
Question: 50
During Iteration Planning, the Scrum Master presents the stories in order of priority and answers clarifying questions
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 51
When is the Acceptance Criteria for Features typically defined?
A. during Program Backlog refinement
B. during Iteration Planning
C. during PI Planning
D. during Inspect & Adapt
Answer: A
Question: 52
What is the primary goal of assigning business value to PI Objectives?
A. to help the teams on the train prioritize work
B. to show economic impact to the customer
C. none of the above
D. to have Business Owner buy-in
Answer: A
Question: 53
Business Agility is the ability to compete and thrive in the digital age by quickly responding to market changes and
emerging opportunities with innovative, digitally-enabled business solutions
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 54
SAFe Lean-Agile principles support centralised decision-making.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: A
Question: 55
Which of the following is not a primary responsibility of Product Management?
A. Developing the Vision and Roadmap for the ART
B. Facilitating PI Planning
C. Owning and managing the Program Backlog
D. Understanding the customer needs
Answer: B
Question: 56
The Agile Manifesto consists of 4 values and how many principles?
A. seven
B. twelve
C. five
D. ten
Answer: B
Question: 57
Pl System Demo is often led by
A. Product Management
B. All of the above
C. POs
D. System Team
Answer: B
Question: 58
What does the R in the SMART model for PI Objectives stand for?
A. Reliable
B. Rare
C. Relatable
D. Realistic
Answer: D
Question: 59
What does the Continuous Delivery Pipeline enable?
A. Release on Demand
B. Quarterly Release
C. Annual Release
D. Scheduled Releases
Answer: A
For More exams visit https://killexams.com/vendors-exam-list

Scrum Practitioner exam Questions - BingNews https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/SAFe-Practitioner Search results Scrum Practitioner exam Questions - BingNews https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/SAFe-Practitioner https://killexams.com/exam_list/Scrum CSM certification: Costs, requirements, and all you need to know

The Certified ScrumMaster (CSM) certification sets the standard for establishing Scrum theory, developing practical applications and rules, and leading teams and stakeholders through the development process.

CSM certification

Agile practices are being rapidly adopted in project and product management across many industries, and the ScrumMaster is an important leadership role in agile development to not only Strengthen workflow but increase your value as your career evolves. The Certified ScrumMaster (CSM) certification, available through the Scrum Alliance, is an entry-level certification aimed at providing professionals with an awareness of the methodologies and values of Scrum, including team performance, accountability, and iterative progress. This certification is beneficial for people in product delivery who use the Scrum framework or those responsible for optimizing Scrum, including ScrumMasters and their teams.

Becoming a CSM offers individuals various valuable benefits, including increased recognition and credibility as a leader, additional opportunities within organizations with agile practices, leverage with future opportunities, and a demonstrated knowledge of Scrum principles.

CSM certification requirements

There are no prerequisites to enroll in CSM training but training is required to become certified. To earn a CSM credential, applicants must understand the Scrum framework and its principles and practices. The Scrum Alliance offers numerous resources on Scrum fundamentals, including the Scrum Alliance expert blog, member articles, videos, presentations, and reports.

Applicants must attend a CSM course, spread across two days in person or four online, taught by a Certified Scrum Trainer. The course provides a full overview of how to organize and support a Scrum team, and covers learning objectives including scope, Lean, agile, coaching, and service to the development team, product owner, and organization.

After completing the course, you have two opportunities within 90 days at no cost to pass the exam through the Scrum Alliance portal and become a Certified ScrumMaster. After up to two attempts within 90 days, however, there’s a $25 charge for each additional attempt. Once you pass the CSM exam, you must submit a license agreement for the Scrum Alliance to accept, as well as complete your Scrum Alliance membership profile.

CSM certification costs

The initial certification fee for each student who successfully completes a Certified ScrumMaster course is paid by the Certified Scrum Trainers. The training course fees, which range from $350 to $1,000, also cover the following:

  • The first two years of certification
  • Two attempts to take the exam (within 90 calendar days of attending the course)
  • Course materials provided by each instructor in class (must be Scrum Alliance approved)
  • The two-day course either online or in-person
  • Two-year membership to the Scrum Alliance community

CSM certification exam

The CSM exam consists of 50 multiple-choice and true/false questions in 60 minutes. You’ll need to correctly answer a minimum of 37 questions for a passing grade of 74%. The exam covers key Scrum elements, including general Scrum knowledge, Scrum roles, Scrum meetings, and Scrum artifacts. Applicants can only attempt the test twice without additional charge within the 90-day timeline of having completed the required two-day course. Otherwise, an additional $25 is required for each subsequent attempt.

CSM certification value

There are real benefits to getting CSM certified, not just for your organization but also on a personal level. The certification gives you a credential of demonstrable leadership value that goes beyond traditional project managers. Benefits also include improving team management, collaboration, and performance to ensure project work progresses seamlessly and efficiently. It also ensures Scrum is being applied correctly and consistently, and that everyone is aligned in their understanding of the framework. Plus, CSM certification provides a career-boosting benefit and opens up opportunities for professional growth.

It’s also about being part of a community. After completing all the steps and becoming a CSM, you’ll receive a two-year membership to the Scrum Alliance and can join local user groups and online social networks, as well as get access to discounts on gatherings, and more.

CSM certification renewal

Your CSM must be renewed every two years. Doing so requires a total of anywhere from 10 to 40 hours of Scrum Education Units (SEUs) and a renewal fee, which varies depending on the certification and SEUs required. Staying up to date requires staying current through SEUs. For every hour you spend on continuing education, you receive one SEU, and SEUs fall into four subcategories: events, learning, volunteering, and other independent means.

Eligible activities include the time you spend reading articles, volunteering, attending events, and taking courses. Examples of SEU options include watching a community webinar, giving back to the agile community through volunteer work, participating in a local user group, attending a global or regional Scrum gathering, and writing a blog post or reading a book about Scrum/agile. As an additional benefit, taking the CSM earns PMI-certified professionals Professional Development Units (PDUs).

CSM certification training

Applicants must attend a 16-hour CSM course taught by a Certified Scrum Trainer (CST) prior to taking the CSM exam, either spread across two days in person or up to four online. CSTs are the only trainers approved by the Scrum Alliance to prepare you for the exam, and courses provided by CSTs are listed on the Scrum Alliance course search page. And even though live online options are available in addition to in-person training across the globe, self-paced online training is not available at this time.

CSM training should cover Scrum principles, the Scrum framework, definitions, how to run a Scrum project, how to work with teams, how Scrum fits into your organization, and the various roles involved with Scrum. By the end of your training you should be able to understand:

  • Foundations of Scrum and rules
  • How to act as a ScrumMaster for Scrum teams and stakeholders
  • Servant-leadership
  • How to effectively use Scrum
  • How to increase the effectiveness of Scrum at your organization

Once your training is complete, you can expect your instructor to assist with creating an account for you to access a CSM exam test site.

Sample CSM exam questions

To prepare for the CSM exam, there are many online practice tests with questions that might look similar to these on your exam including:

  • Tracking project impediments in a Scrum project is whose primary responsibility?
  • Which concept of the following is NOT defined in the Scrum framework?
  • Which of the following main events are defined in the Scrum framework?
  • Who is responsible for prioritizing the product backlog?

CSM certification salaries and jobs

Becoming a CSM can also provide a big boost to your annual salary. The range for ScrumMasters varies depending on title and location, but Glassdoor calculates an average of $128,000 and some roles can command as high as $165,000. Some such as Agile coach, Scrum trainer, Senior ScrumMaster, Agile Scrum coach, and Lead ScrumMaster are typical titles that can be expected, depending where you are on your career track.

Having achieved ScrumMaster certification opens up doors to more senior positions, and regardless of the role you choose, all indications point to a secure and stable future full of opportunities.

Fri, 08 Dec 2023 00:22:00 -0600 en text/html https://www.cio.com/article/222489/csm-certification-guide-certified-scrummaster-exam-explained.html
Exam Information

An exam proctor will begin reading exam instructions approximately 15 minutes before the exam start time. Students must be in the exam room with their exam at this time. If taking the exam on a laptop, it must be booted up and have passed the security check. Hand writers must not have a laptop with them in an exam room, unless otherwise allowed according to the professor’s instructions. A student entering the exam room after the proctor begins reading instructions will not receive additional time for booting up their laptop, passing the security check, and/or reading exam instructions.

When instructed by the proctor, write your exam number on the cover page of your exam, bluebooks, and any scratch paper you turn in as part of your exam. Handwritten exam answers must be written in blue books in blue or black ink. Number the bluebooks you use (1 of 1, 1 of 2, 2 of 2, etc.). Proctors will allow time to read the professor’s instructions. Other than counting the number of pages of the exam, students are not permitted to turn the page of an exam past the instructions page until the proctor instructs them to do so.

When taking a closed-book exam, no books, outlines, book bags, purses, or scratch paper (other than the scratch paper provided) may be at your seat during the exam. These items must be left outside of the exam room or in the front or sides of the exam room. Students may not begin to write anything, including on scratch paper, before the proctor begins a closed-book exam.

Students taking in-class exams are prohibited from having any electronic communication device, other than a laptop as allowed per the professor's instructions, during the exam. Cell phones and smart watches must be turned off during the exam and placed in a bag or backpack. Violations of this rule may be considered an Honor Code violation. A clock in each exam room will be the official timekeeper for the exam.

Non-alcoholic beverages are permitted in exam rooms; however, the container must have a lid.

After the exam instructions have been read and the exam begins, the proctor will remain in the room. Any student who has a question or problem during an exam should see the proctor.

Students may use the restroom or take a break during an exam. However, all exam materials must be left in the exam room and no additional time will be given. Students must sign in and out at the front of the room with the proctor.

Thu, 15 Jun 2023 00:20:00 -0500 en text/html https://www.slu.edu/law/academics/registrar/exam-information/index.php
Prepare for the CCST Exam
  • The correct answer is D, A/D converter. A digital controller requires a digital signal as its input. A 4-20 mA transmitter outputs an analog signal. Therefore, a device to convert an analog (A) signal to a digital (D) is required. This class of device is referred to as an A/D converter.

    An I/P transducer is used to convert an analog current (I) signal to a pneumatic (P) signal, as for actuation of final control elements. A P/I transducer is used to convert a pneumatic signal (P) to an analog current (I) signal, as for a pneumatic transmitter in a programmable logic controller loop. A DP transmitter is a differential pressure transmitter, which can output a pneumatic, an analog, or a digital signal, depending on the model of transmitter used.

    Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.

  • The correct answer is C, "sample conditioning system." Answers A and C are items not generally associated with extractive field analyzers. Capillary tubes are used for collecting small samples (water, for instance) from a larger container. There are special capillary tubes that can be used in the analyzer chamber of a gas chromatograph, but they are not constructed from glass. Smooth-walled pipe is important for reducing friction losses in piping systems.

    A trial probe calibration system is important to the overall function and maintenance of an extractive field analyzer. However, these systems are not used to prepare the trial for analysis, but rather to provide a mechanism to verify and maintain analyzer performance.

    A trial conditioning system can contain devices, such as filters, demisters, flow regulators, and heaters. trial conditioning systems are used to bring the trial to the ideal process conditions for accurate measurement in the analyzer itself. The trial conditioning system can be a key maintenance item in an analyzer system, since each device needs to be calibrated, cleaned, etc.

    Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.

  • The correct answer is B, "equal to." In order for air to be discharged from the end of a bubbler purge tube, the air pressure in the tube must be equal to (or higher than) the pressure exerted by the liquid head in the tank.

    As the tank level is decreased, the liquid head pressure at the tip of the purge tube decreases, and more bubbles per unit of time can escape. The corresponding reduction in pressure in the purge tube is proportional to the level in the tank. Therefore, the point at which the liquid head pressure and the purge tube pressure are equal is the highest level (URV = 100%) that the device will measure.

    Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.

  • The correct answer is A, "51 K ohms ± 5%."

    The four-color band coding is:
    Color    Value    Multiplier
    Black    0    1
    Brown    1    10
    Red    2    100
    Orange    3    1000
    Yellow    4    10 K
    Green    5    100K
    Blue    6    1 M
    Violet    7    10 M
    Gray    8     
    White    9     
    Gold    ± 5%    0.1
    Silver    ± 10%    0.01

    So a resistor with four bands, green-brown-orange-gold, has a value of: 5 1 x 1000 ± 5% or 51 KΩ.

    Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.

  • The correct answer is D, series and energized. To measure current, you must connect the two leads of the ammeter in the circuit so that the current flows through the ammeter. In other words, the ammeter must become a part of the circuit itself. The only way to measure the current flowing through a simple circuit is to insert your ammeter into the circuit (in series) with the circuit energized.

    Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.

  • The correct answer is A; it prevents the formation of a second temperature measurement junction.

    A thermocouple measurement junction is formed wherever two dissimilar metals are joined. KX-type thermocouple extension wire is made of the same metals as the K-type thermocouple (chromel and alumel). When extending the thermocouple leads with an extension wire back to the control system input card, KX thermocouple extension wire must be used, and the chromel wire and the alumel wire must be joined to the wire of the same metal in the extension cable. If JX or another type of extension wire is used, another measurement junction is formed. For instance, if JX extension cable is used in the example in this problem, the point where the iron and chromel wires are joined would form another thermocouple. This will negatively affect the intended measurement signal. Proper installation of thermocouple extension wires also requires special terminal blocks to prevent additional junctions from being formed.

    Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.

  • The correct answer is B, "hydraulic actuation." Although many pneumatic actuators can provide a large force, they require either a large diaphragm area (in the case of a diaphragm actuator) or a large cylinder (in the case of a rack and pinion actuator).

    Hydraulic actuators are driven by a high-pressure fluid (up to 4,000 psig) that can be delivered to the actuator by a pump that is remote from the actuator itself. Hydraulic cylinders can deliver up to 25 times more force than a pneumatic cylinder of the same size.

    Manual actuation is accomplished by turning a valve handle, and is limited to the amount of force that an operator can exert on the lever or hand wheel.

    Electric actuation delivers high torques for rotary-style valves, but electric actuators tend to be large and heavy compared to hydraulic actuators.

    Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.

  • The correct answer is D; they measure pressure by sensing the deflection of the diaphragm. For most pressure applications, changes in pressure are detected by the change in deflection of a measuring diaphragm.

    The deflection is converted into an electrical signal (voltage) by a piezoelectric or capacitance device. The small electrical current is converted to a standard signal (e.g., 4-20 mA or a digital signal) by a transmitter. Therefore, answer B is not correct.

    Answer A is not correct, because pressure sensors can measure very small pressure changes (inches of water) and in some cases, millimeters of water.

    Pressure measurement devices are not affected by volume, since they are measuring force over an area only. Many pressure sensors are sensitive to temperature (capillary tubes are filled with fluids that can expand with temperature). Therefore, answer C is not correct.

    Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.

  • The correct answer is C, "Gather information about the problem." Once a problem is identified, data must be gathered and analyzed to determine a viable set of potential actions and solutions.

    The logical analysis troubleshooting method consists of (in order):
    1. Identify and define the problem.
    2. Gather information about the problem.
    3. Evaluate the information/data.
    4. Propose a solution or develop a test.
    5. Implement the solution or conduct the test.
    6. Evaluate the results of the solution or test.
    7. If the problem is not resolved, reiterate until the problem is found and resolved.
    8. If the problem is resolved: document, store/file, and send to the appropriate department for follow up if required.

    Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.

  • The correct answer is B, “location, elevation, and tag number.” Instrument location plans are most often used to support new plant installations and supply the installer information about the actual physical location of the installation of an instrument, the elevation of installation (at grade, on a platform, at what height on a process line, etc.), and the tag number of the instrument to be installed.

    Specification numbers (part of answers C and D) are usually indicated on instrument lists and instrument installation details. Wiring plans (part of answer A) are typically shown on conduit and wiring schedules or cabling diagrams. Although these details are useful in the installation of a plant, they are not part of the instrument installation plans.

    Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.

  • Thu, 02 Dec 2021 09:44:00 -0600 en text/html https://www.isa.org/certification/ccst/prepare-for-the-ccst-exam
    8 Easy Tips For Students To Attempt All Questions In Exam 8 Easy Tips For Students To Attempt All Questions In Exam

    By Anshika Verma12, Dec 2023 11:50 AMjagranjosh.com

    Use the Additional 15 Minutes

    Students are given this extra time so they can carefully study the questions before beginning to write. Create a strategy for how to write the exam.

    Set the Priority

    Make a list of the questions you feel most comfortable answering. It's not necessary to write answers in the same sequence as it appears in exam.

    Write Brief, to the Point Answers

    Examine a question attentively and make sure you comprehend its meaning. Try to keep your answers and explaination as brief as possible.

    Choose Questions Wisely

    Typically, the paper has a few questions with internal choices. Choose wisely while answering. It's up to you to decide which questions you want to try.

    Effective time management

    It’s important to allocate time wisely for each and every question so that in the last 15 minutes of the exam there is no mess to complete the exam.

    Stay calm and positive

    It’s crucial to maintain a positive mindset throughout the exam. If you get anxious it automatically becomes tough for you to write the exam.

    Use headings and bullets

    Using bullets and headings will make your answers more easy to understand. It will also help you to see if all key points are covered or not.

    Review answers carefully

    If time allows you, try to revise all your answers and check out if something important is missing or not. Atlast, believe in your potential.

    बिहार बोर्ड ने 10वीं 12वीं के मॉडल पेपर किए जारी

    Mon, 11 Dec 2023 17:24:00 -0600 text/html https://www.jagranjosh.com/web-stories/easy-tips-for-students-to-attempt-all-questions-in-exam-72905 Exam technique

    Information and guidance on how to prepare for your exam.

    Dealing with stress

    Exams are a unique kind of challenge. After university, it's rare for people to sit another exam.

    But that doesn't mean you won't find yourself in a pressurised situation where you must produce or recall a lot of information and explain your understanding.

    Pressurised situations can bring out the best in us: they focus attention, force us to prioritise our work and make sure we properly rank our knowledge in terms of relevance. But their intensity can lead to stress, which can have a negative effect on your performance.

    Feeling a degree of stress about your exams is completely normal and is a positive marker that you are invested in your learning. However, it's important to make sure that your stress levels feel manageable and don't impact negatively on your wellbeing.

    The more informed and better prepared you are, the more able you'll be to cope with the stress of exams. See the SSiD exam Worries pages for tips on how to stay on top of things in the run-up to your exams. 

    301 Recommends:

    Our Essay Based exam Technique workshop will consider exams from the examiner's perspective to identify the key things they are trying to test in your answer. It will look at the technique of breaking down the exam question, focus on some simple organisational techniques, and conclude by identifying ways to overcome the challenges of time and stress.

    This Short/MCQ exam Technique workshop will look at the short answer or MCQ exam as a process or timeline and identify the key stages that will supply you the best chance of getting the marks that you deserve, ways to plan your time in the exam, how to analyse the question, how to answer the exam paper strategically, and conclude by identifying ways to overcome the challenges of time and stress.

    Exam environment

    Like any form of assessment, exams are designed to test your knowledge about a module's content. Exams are a special case, however. The testing takes place in a relatively artificial and controlled environment that involves other people, whose ways of working might be distracting.

    Each exam has specific regulations about location, duration, access to resources and question format, amongst other things. You can find out more about your exam locations and requirements at the SSiD exam Information pages.

    If your exams are taking place online, you can find out more about taking online exams here


    What do you do first when the clock starts in an exam? Start scribbling furiously? Or take some time to breath, check the exam paper and prepare yourself for what is ahead? It may feel as though those around you are already busy writing, but it can be helpful to have a good plan in place for your exam and not rush straight into it. 

    Things you may want to consider including in your plan are:

    At the beginning of an exam

    • Read the instructions at least twice, even if you are familiar with the style and format of the exam. There may be some unexpected differences that you will need to be aware of
    • Read the entire paper carefully at least once, noting how many questions you need to complete and the length of the exam
    • After reading the full paper, decide what questions you will answer and the order in which you will do them. It is not always sensible to choose comfort zone topics; instead carefully read the question being asked and select the most appropriate subject
    • Next, consider how long you will spend on each question, ensuring that the time allocated to a particular question is in keeping with the number of marks available

    Before You Start Writing

    • Re-read each individual question and break it down into its component parts.
    • Look for action verbs, such as analyse, argue, compare and contrast, criticise, discuss or evaluate. Think about the implications on your answer.
    • Consider any limitations or restrictions that are presented within the question and highlight key words or phrases.
    • Spend some time planning your answer and ensure you stay focused on the question being asked.

    Examiners don't want you to write everything you know. Instead, they want to see that you have critically engaged with the set question. You might want to use the Essay-Based exam Planner (pdf. 422kb) to think about how to organise your exam answers. 

    As You Write Your Answer

    • Keep an eye on the time and move on if you run over or get stuck on a particular question.
    • If you're running out of time concentrate on the first sections of questions, which usually offer easy marks,
    • If you are really running out of time, write with bullet points rather than full sentences, and come to a conclusion. You probably won't get all of the available marks for your answer, but you may get some!

    And finally: NEVER LEAVE AN exam EARLY!

    • Try to allocate some time to proofreading and checking. Time spent checking and re-checking is always well spent and it never does any harm to double and triple-check your work. 

    301 Recommends: exam Technique Study Skills Hacks Video

    Watch this short Study Skills Hacks video for tips and strategies on how to get the most out of yourself in an exam.


    University exams will often involve writing a short essay on a topic. This tests not only your recall of facts and information, but also your ability to understand and explore concepts and ideas.

    Writing an essay under the time pressure of an exam can be challenging. It requires careful planning and organisation in order to set out your thoughts clearly.

    Have a look at the information below for some tips on how to get the most out of yourself in an essay-based exam.

    Understand the Question

    Exam questions usually involve a prompt word that dictates the structure and approach required in the essay. Pay attention to the prompt word and it will make the job of planning and structuring your essay much easier.

    The following is by no means a comprehensive list, but covers the most commonly used essay prompt words:

    Analyse

    Identify and examine closely the component parts of a… (e.g. situation, model, theory)

    Argue

    Present a case for and/or against acknowledging the strengths and weaknesses of both sides

    Compare

    Examine qualities, or characteristics, emphasising similarities, although differences may be mentioned

    Contrast

    Stress dissimilarities, differences, or unlikeness of things, qualities, events, or problems

    Criticise

    Make a judgement about the value of… and support it with evidence (may be positive or negative)

    Discuss

    Examine an argument, supply reasons for and against; consider its wider implications 

    Evaluate

    Present an authoritative and, to a lesser extent, personal appraisal of the advantages and limitations

    Explain

    Focus on the "how" or "why", emphasising the conditions that supply rise to whatever you are examining

    Justify

    Prove or show grounds for decisions. In such an answer, evidence should be presented in convincing form

    Outline

    Give an organised description, presenting the information in a systematic way

    Review

    Analyse and comment briefly in organised sequence upon the major points of the problem

    Summarise

    Give the main points or facts in condensed form, omitting details, illustrations and elaboration

    Plan Your exam Answer

    Spending time planning the content and structure of your exam answer will be an investment that will pay off when you start writing.

    Having a skeleton structure planned out will make it much easier to organise the detail and make sure you stay on subject and answer the question.

    To make a quick and easy plan for an exam answer, try using this exam answer planning template (pdf. 422kb). This is a process that you can easily replicate in exam conditions.

    • First, mind dump all your ideas on a subject - there is no need to think about structure at this stage
    • Next prioritise your ideas to get a sense of which points will be most important to include. Remember, there is no need to put everything into an exam answer. Be attentive to the marks on offer for the question and put in the key points only
    • Finally, create a basic structure for your answer. If it an essay-based exam, you will be assessed on your ability to communicate as well as the content, so a clear structure will help the marker to follow your ideas

    Try using this planning technique in your revision to practise organising your thoughts around the subjects and sub-topics of a module.


    Check the format of your exam

    Some subjects will involve multiple-choice question (MCQ) exams. These can take different formats, so make sure you know which one your exam will follow.

    Find out if it involves negative marking, which is sometimes known as the guessing correction. If this is the case, make sure you understand when it's worth making an informed guess.

    As with any other exam, read the instructions carefully before you begin and identify how long you can spend on each question or section.

    Strategies

    System of rounds

    This strategy will help you to get the most out of yourself in an exam with time pressure. It will allow you to target the quickest and easiest marks first, so you know how much time you have left to tackle the harder questions later on.

    Follow the below steps:

    • Round one: Answer the easy, or easier, questions.
    • Round two: Answer the harder questions.
    • Round three: Answer the remaining (hardest) questions.

    Take care not to miss any questions out and never leave an exam early!

    Five steps

    This strategy helps you to avoid being confused or distracted by incorrect options and to make positive and confident choices:

    • Step 1: Cover up the answers and read the stem. It might help to underline negatives or absolutes, eg never, none, unless or not.
    • Step 2: Anticipate or make a ballpark guess at the correct answer, if you can.
    • Step 3: Uncover all the answers. Do any of them correspond to your anticipated answer?
    • Step 4: Read all the answers carefully, even if your first choice seems obvious.
    • Step 5: Choose your answer.

     First Impressions

    Your first impression is often your best friend for a few important reasons:

    • Your guesstimate will help you to eliminate obviously incorrect answers.
    • Examiners are not trying to trick you – if it seems right, it probably is!
    • If you are well prepared and have read the question and possible answers carefully, your first impression is probably right.
    • As a general rule of thumb, only go back to change an answer if you have a very good reason to do so.

    Watch out for: answers that are worded similarly but with different meanings. This can be extremely common in MCQ exams, so make sure you read the question carefully and select the correct answer.

    301 Recommends: Multiple-Choice Exams Study Skills Hacks Video

    Watch this short Study Skills Hacks video on multiple-choice exams for tips and strategies to help make the most of your time in a multiple-choice exam.


    • Arrive early to avoid any last-minute stress
    • Bring spare pens, pencils, etc.
    • Avoid discussing the exam with classmates right before you start the exam as this can add to nerves
    • Take water with you to the exam and sip throughout
    • Read the questions carefully at least twice
    • Take your time to plan your time
    • Stay positive - you are probably better prepared than you think!

    Useful resources

    Mon, 20 Jun 2022 20:27:00 -0500 en text/html https://www.sheffield.ac.uk/academic-skills/study-skills-online/exam-techniques
    AWS Cloud Practitioner exam Prep No result found, try new keyword!This new foundational-level course from Amazon Web Services (AWS), is designed to help you to assess your preparedness for the AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner certification exam. You will learn ... Wed, 16 Nov 2022 14:34:00 -0600 https://www.usnews.com/education/skillbuilder/aws-cloud-practitioner-exam-prep-1_course_v1:AWS+AWS_CP_EP+3T2021_professional Most Expected GK Questions for RPSC RAS Exam: Top Questions Asked

    Rajasthan GK for RPSC RAS Exam: The Rajasthan Public Service Commission (RPSC) for Rajasthan Administrative Officer  (RAS) will conduct the RPSC RAS Prelims 2023 exam on October 1, 2023 across various RAS exam centres in the state. The exam will be conducted from 11 pm to 2 pm. The prelims exam will comprise one objective paper which contains questions from General Knowledge and General Studies with influence on Rajasthan, carrying 150 questions with an exam duration of 3 hours. 

    The paper will also carry a negative marking of 1/3rd mark for every incorrect answer marked. As the RPSC RAS exam gets closer, aspirants have to solve an infinite number of questions to Strengthen their Rajasthan GK foundation and Strengthen their exam marks. They can use it to identify the types of questions that can be asked in the Rajasthan RPSC RAS exam.

    With numerous questions in the examination evaluating knowledge about the state of Rajasthan, including its history, geography, culture, economy, politics, education, sports, and entertainment, Rajasthan GK and its importance in RPSC RAS exams increases.

    In this article, we have compiled the top questions of Rajasthan GK for the RPSC RAS exam for ease of the candidates aspiring for the upcoming Rajasthan Combined Competitive Examination.

    1. The Shankariya dance of Rajasthan is related to

    (1) Kalbeliya

    (2) Bhil

    (3) Sahanya

    (4) Terahtali

    Answer: 1

    1. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

          Name                                Text (Music) 

    (1) Puridrik Vitala            Raagmala

    (2) Pandit                             Sangeetraj Bhavbhatt

    (3) Kumbha                        Ragakalpadrum

    (4) Ustad Chand             Ragachandrika Khan

    Answer: 1

    1. Where was the headquarters of the Shekhawati Brigade located?

    (1) Sikar

    (2) Jhunjhunu

    (3) Khetri

    (4) Fatehpur

    Answer: 2

    1. Who among the following was the first to emphasise the need to establish separate educational institutions for the rulers of the princely states of Rajasthan?

    (1) Colonel Loch

    (2) Lord Lansdowne

    (3) Captain Walter 

    (4)  Lord Mayo

    Answer: 3

    1. ‘Hansawali', an early work of Rajasthani literature was written by

    (1) Hemchandra

    (2) Asayit

    (3) Sridhar Vyas

    (4)  lsardas

    Answer: 2

    1. In acid rain, the rainwater and snow are contaminated by which. of the following pollutants?

    (A) Sulphur-di-oxide

    (B) Nitrogen oxide

    (C) Carbon-di-oxide

    (D) Methane

    (1) (A), (B) and (D)

    (2) (A), (C) and (D)

    (3) Only (B) and (C)

    (4) Only (A) and (B)

    Answer: 4

    1. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a region?

    (A) Global Warning

    (B) Fragtrientation of habitat

    (C) Invasion of alien species

    (D) Promotion of Vegetarianism

    Select the correct answer using the code given below :

    Codes :

    (1) (A), (B) and (C)

    (2) (B) and (C) only

    (3) (A) and (D)

    (4) (B), (C) and (D)

    Answer: 1

    1. Which of the following is not a correct match? 

    Passes                              Location in States

    (1) Shipki La                 Jammu & Kashmir

    (2) Jelep La                   Sikkim

    (3) Born Di La              Arunachal Pradesh 

    (4) Mana and Niti     Uttarakhand

    Answer: 1

    1. Arrange the following cities located on the North-South corridor in a  sequence from North to South.

    Select  the  correct  answer  using the code  given below :

    (A)  Nagpur   (B) Agra

    (C) Krishtiagiri   (D) Gwalior

    Codes :

    (1) B, C, A and D

    (2) B, D, A and C

    (3) D, B, C and A

    (4) A, B, D and C

    Answer: 2

    1. When did the Rajasthan Govt. approve the first forest policy?

    (1) September 2011

    (2) August 2010

    (3) March 2011

    (4) February 2010

    Answer: 4

    1. Arrange the districts with the maximum total population in Rajasthan in descending order as per Census 2011 :

    (1) Jaipur, Kota, Jodhpur, Bikaner

    (2) Jaipur, Jodhpur, Alwar, Nagaur

    (3) Jaipur, Udaipur, Jodhpur, Bikaner

    (4) Jaipur, Bikaner, Jodhpur, Udaipur

    Answer: 2

    1. Arrange the following districts of Rajasthan-_in correct order from East to West:
    2. Bundi            B. Ajmer
    3. Udaipur        D. Nagpur

    (1) A, B, C, D

    (2) B, A, C, D

    (3) A, B, D, C

    (4) A, C, B, D

    Answer: 3

    1. Identify the incorrect statement about the Government of India Act 1919.:

    (1) The   Government of   India Act of 1919 came into force in  1921.

    (2) This Act is also known as the Morley Minto Reforms Act.

    (3) Montagu was the Secretary of State for India and Lord Chelmsford was the Viceroy of India.

    (4) This Act separated the Central and Provincial subjects.

    Answer: 4

    1. The tenure of the Central Information Commissioner is

    (1) 5 years or 62 years of age

    (2) 6 years or 65 years of age

    (3) 3 years or 65 years of age

    (4) 6 years or 62 years of age

    Answer: 3

    1. One of the following was not a salient feature of the Government of India Act, of 1935 :

    (1) It marked the beginning of the Provincial Autonomy.

    (2) The Act provided for an All India Federation. ·

    (3) It abolished Diarchy at the Provincial level and introduced it at the Centre.

    (4) Residuary subjects were allocated to Provincial Legislatures

    Answer: 4

    1. The procedure of Impeachment of the President of India is

    (1) Judicial  Procedure

    (2) Quasi Judicial  Procedure

    (3) Legislative Procedure

    (4) Executive Procedure

    Answer: 2

    1. Before the appointment of Shri Kalyan. Singh as the Governor of Rajasthan who among the following was the Acting Governor of the State?

    (1) O.P. Kohli

    (2) Ram Naresh Yadav

    (3) Ram Naik

    (4) Margaret Alva

    Answer:  3

    1. Which one of the following statements is true about Anuprati Yojana?

    (1) It is a scheme to supply financial help to Scheduled Caste girls for marriage.

    (2) It is a scheme to supply coaching for Scheduled  Caste and  Scheduled Tribe students.

    (3) It is a scheme to supply financial help to orphan children of Scheduled Caste.

    (4) It is a scheme to supply financial assistance to. school-going children of Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe.

    Answer: 2

    1. The inflation rate based on the consumer price index increases if

    (1) the Bank rate is decreased

    (2) the Reverse repo rate is decreased

    (3) the Statutory Liquidity ratio is increased

    (4) the Repo rate is increased

    Answer: 1

    1. As per the Human Development Report 2015, consider the following statements:
    2. India ranks 130 out of 188 countries.
    3. HDI is based on the indices for life expectancy, education and PCI.
    4. In comparison to other nations in the BRICS, India has the lowest rank.

    Which of the· statements given above is/are correct?

    (1) A and B only

    (2) B and C only

    (3) B only

    (4) A, B and C

    Answer: 4

    1. The Nodal Agency for the generation of energy from non-conventional energy sources in Rajasthan is 

    (1) Rajasthan Renewable Energy Corporation Ltd.

    (2) State Ministry of New Renewable Energy

    (3) Centre for New and Renewable Energy Sources.

    (4) None of these

    Answer: 1

    1. One of the following is not the objective of Chief Minister Shubh Laxmi Yojana in Rajasthan

    (1) To promote the birth of girl child

    (2) To prevent child marriage

    (3) To encourage registration of girl childbirth

    (4) To help pregnant girls

    Answer: 4

    Also Read Related Articles,

    Thu, 28 Sep 2023 01:10:00 -0500 en text/html https://www.jagranjosh.com/articles/most-expected-rajasthan-gk-questions-for-rpsc-ras-exam-top-questions-asked-1695904619-1
    Best CFA exam Prep Courses of 2024

    We independently evaluate all recommended products and services. If you click on links we provide, we may receive compensation. Learn more.

    If you plan on pursuing a career as a chartered financial analyst (CFA), you'll need to pass a series of three comprehensive exams. The CFA exam measures and certifies your competence and integrity before becoming a financial analyst. In passing the CFA exam, you'll gain analytical skills and expertise in quantitative methods, economics, financial reporting, investment analysis, and portfolio management. The exam is meant to help you enhance your career or help you find a new role in the finance sector.

    To prepare for these exams, many candidates use prep course products to complement their self-study from the Institute’s materials or as a complete alternative to using those materials. So, candidates should focus on the products that they really need, given their own circumstances. There are five distinct categories of products, including self-study with books/e-books, questions, and mock exams, in-person or online instruction, pre-test review, and tutoring.

    To best help you feel ready for the exam, we assessed the best CFA exam prep courses to get you across the finish line.

    Mon, 10 Aug 2020 16:51:00 -0500 en text/html https://www.investopedia.com/best-cfa-exam-prep-courses-4797121
    PRINCE2 Practitioner

    The PRINCE2 Practitioner qualification enables you to apply PRINCE2 to the management of a project.

    PRINCE2 (an acronym for projects in controlled environments) is a de facto process-based method for effective project management.

    Gaining PRINCE2 certification gives you the skills to feel confident in managing projects successfully within the workforce.

    Who should attend?

    The course is suitable for anyone wishing to gain the PRINCE2 Practitioner qualification, and who has already achieved the PRINCE2 Foundation level qualification.

    In order to sit the PRINCE2 Practitioner examination you must provide
    evidence of being a current holder of one of the following qualifications:

    PRINCE2 Foundation
    Project Management Professional (PMP)®
    Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)®
    IPMA Level A (Certified Projects Director)
    IPMA Level B® (Certified Senior Project Manager)
    IPMA Level C® (Certified Project Manager)
    IPMA Level D® (Certified Project Management Associate)

    How will I benefit?

    You will have a comprehensive knowledge of the relationships between the PRINCE2 principles, themes and processes and PRINCE2 products and will understand these elements.

    By the end of the PRINCE2 Practitioner eLearning course you should be able to:

    • Apply the PRINCE2 principles in context
    • Apply effective people management in successful projects
    • Apply and tailor relevant aspects of PRINCE2 themes in context
    • Apply and tailor relevant aspects of PRINCE2 processes
      in context

    About the PRINCE2 Practitioner

    We will supply you a voucher to book the exam with an Institution partner on a date of your choice. You can sit the exam remotely at your office or home (camera and microphone required).

    We provide six months of access to the eLearning, a voucher to sit the accredited PRINCE2 Practitioner exam and a digital copy of the course manual. 

    In order to sit the PRINCE2 Practitioner exam you must provide proof of having passed the PRINCE2 Foundation examination.

    Please note, exams are hosted by a partner of the Institution and the Institution does not provide technical support.

    PRINCE2® Foundation and Practitioner, are offered by ILX Group an ATO of AXELOS Limited.
    PRINCE2® is a registered trade mark of AXELOS Limited, used under permission of AXELOS Limited. All rights reserved. 

    Tue, 01 Mar 2022 16:50:00 -0600 en text/html https://www.imeche.org/training-qualifications/training-details/prince2-practitioner
    NextGen Bar exam MC Questions Only Require Takers To Spot Issues, And Not Apply the Rules

    In law schools, generations of students have been taught the IRAC model to answer legal questions. First, students must spot the issue–what legal doctrine do the facts implicate? Second, students must state the rule–what particular legal precedent, statute, or principle governs this conflict? Third, students must then apply the rule to these facts–under a particular legal standard, how should the court rule? Fourth, students must state the conclusion–who wins, the plaintiff or the defendant?

    Of course, there are many variations of IRAC, and invariably, many students stop using it rigidly at some point during the second year. But the basic process–applying a rule to particular facts is a cornerstone of legal education.

    That background brings me to the NextGen bar exam. I have written about this new formulation of the multistate bar exam, which will launch in some states in 2026. Justice Jay Mitchell of the Alabama Supreme Court already expressed a concern that the National Conference of Bar Examiners (NCBE) is placing DEI concerns over competence. (Critics contend that the bar exam is racist, and should be eliminated). I have another concern, which may be related–the NCBE seems to be making the exam substantially easier.

    The NCBE released a batch of questions to demonstrate how the NextGen exam will function. The multiple choice questions reflect a new approach. Rather than forcing students to memorize particular rules, and then apply them, the new questions only ask students to spot the issue. The thinking is that practicing attorneys do not actually have to memorize particular rules, or even know how to apply them. So long as they can recognize what doctrine is implicated, a quick query on WestLaw, Lexis, and (lord help us) ChatGPT can locate the particular rule, and then the lawyer can figure out how to apply that rule to the facts (or just ask ChatGPT to do it). In short, bar examinees will not have to know the rule, apply the rule, or conclude the case. They only have to spot the issue. Only I, not RAC.

    Consider this Criminal Procedure question:

    You are a criminal defense lawyer representing a client who has been charged with fentanyl possession. The police found the fentanyl in the guest bedroom of the client's uncle's house when responding to a noise complaint at the house. Before entering the house, the officers knocked on the door. When the uncle answered the door, the officers asked if they could look inside the house, and the uncle agreed. The client did not live in the house and was not there at the time of the search. The client had stayed in the guest bedroom of the house two nights prior to the search. The uncle told the officers that the client was the last person to have slept in that room.

    You are considering filing a motion to suppress the fentanyl under the Fourth Amendment.

    Which of the following legal subjects are the most important for you to research to determine the likelihood of success on a motion to suppress? Select two.

    A. Consent search.
    B. Exigent circumstances.
    C. Hot pursuit.
    D. Probable cause.
    E.Reasonable suspicion.
    F. Standing.

    The correct answer here is A (Consent Search) and F (Standing). Those are the legal subjects that are "most important" to research. First, would the Uncle have authority to consent to the search? Second, would the criminal defendant have standing to challenge the Uncle's consent? Now the examinee does not actually have to answer whether the motion to suppress would be granted. Who cares if the Uncle could consent to the search? It doesn't matter if the defendant has standing. The test taker doesn't even have to know the relevant rules for consent searches and standing. All she has to do is spot the issue. I suppose the NCBE thinks that a first-year lawyer can simply enter "consent search" and "standing" into ChatGPT, knowing nothing more, and get the answer. I am not confident anyone can figure out these doctrines on the fly.

    Let's try a Property question.

    You are representing a client in a dispute with a neighbor. The client owns a single-family home with several acres of surrounding land. Recently, the client noticed that his neighbor had built a fence that extends onto the client's land. The client is unsure when the fence was built because that part of the client's land is obscured by large trees. When the client contacted the neighbor about the fence, the neighbor claimed that she did not know the location of the property line. The client has shown you a exact survey of the property that confirms the encroachment and has asked you whether he has a claim against the neighbor.

    Which of the following legal subjects are the most important for you to research before advising the client? Select two.

    A. Adverse possession.
    B. Conversion.
    C. Implied easement.
    D. License.
    E. Negligence.
    F. Trespass.

    The answers here are, once again, A (Adverse Possession) and F (Trespass). The question presented is whether the neighbor's fence encroaches (trespasses) on the client's property, and if there is an encroachment, has the neighbor acquired the right to do so through adverse possession. This question is complicated, because trees obscure the boundary (affecting the open and notorious prong), and the neighbor may not have even known if he was obtaining land through adverse possession (in the lingo, did he have the right claim of right?). I could see a student struggling with applying the rules to this question. But on the bar, an applicant only needs to spot the relevant doctrine, and pray they can figure stuff out when in practice.

    I worry that these questions are far too simple. If the states end up adopting the NextGen exam, they should increase the cut score (the relevant percentage needed to pass the exam). Finally, I worry how this exam will trickle down to law school pedagogy. Will professors shift their coverage to no longer require memorizing and applying the rules–only spotting issues? It's true that all lawyers have sophisticated tools at their disposal to research different topics. This new format seems to be a surrender to this technology–don't require students to do what they don't have to. I, for one, do not plan to change how I teach for this exam. And state supreme court justices should take a very long pause before adopting this new exam.

    Wed, 12 Jul 2023 02:47:00 -0500 Josh Blackman en-US text/html https://reason.com/volokh/2023/07/12/nextgen-bar-exam-mc-questions-only-require-takers-to-spot-issues-and-not-apply-the-rules/





    SAFe-Practitioner outline | SAFe-Practitioner learning | SAFe-Practitioner course outline | SAFe-Practitioner syllabus | SAFe-Practitioner mock | SAFe-Practitioner test | SAFe-Practitioner information hunger | SAFe-Practitioner testing | SAFe-Practitioner reality | SAFe-Practitioner Study Guide |


    Killexams exam Simulator
    Killexams Questions and Answers
    Killexams Exams List
    Search Exams
    SAFe-Practitioner exam dump and training guide direct download
    Training Exams List