NCIDQ National Council for Interior Design Qualification
The exam includes 100 scored questions and 25 unscored pilot questions. The IDFX addresses the content areas of Building Systems and Construction, Programming and Site Analysis, Human Behavior and the Designed Environment, Construction Drawing and Specifications, among others. Candidates have three hours to complete the IDFX. Available to approved candidates with their education and work experience requirements, and new interior design graduates and students in the last year of a Bachelor or Master Degree-Seeking interior design program who have not yet completed their work experience.
IDPX computerized multiple choice exam
The Interior Design Professional exam (IDPX) is available to approved candidates who have completed both their education and the required amount of work experience. The exam consists of 150 scored questions and 25 unscored pilot questions. The IDPX addresses the content areas of Codes and Standards, Building Systems and Integration, Project Coordination, Professional and Business Practices, among others. Candidates are given four hours to complete the IDPX.
PRAC computerized interactive exam
The Interior Design Practicum exam (PRAC) is available to approved candidates who have completed both their education and the required amount of work experience. PRAC utilizes three (3) CIDQ case studies: large commercial, small commercial, and multi-family residential, to assess a candidates ability to synthesize information related to the design process and make a judgment using the resources provided.
Interior design is a distinct profession with specialized knowledge applied to the planning and design of interior environments that promote health, safety, and welfare while supporting and enhancing the human experience. Founded upon design and human behavior theories and research, interior designers apply evidence-based methodologies to identify, analyze, and synthesize information in generating holistic, technical, creative, and contextually-appropriate design solutions.
Interior design encompasses human-centered strategies that may address cultural, demographic, and political influences on society. Interior designers provide resilient, sustainable, adaptive design and construction solutions focusing on the evolution of technology and innovation within the interior environment. Qualified by means of education, experience, and examination, interior designers have a moral and ethical responsibility to protect consumers and occupants through the design of code-compliant, accessible, and inclusive interior environments that address well-being, while considering the complex physical, mental, and emotional needs of people.
Interior designers contribute to the interior environment with knowledge and skills about space planning; interior building materials and finishes; casework, furniture, furnishings, and equipment; lighting; acoustics; wayfinding; ergonomics and anthropometrics; and human environmental behavior. Interior designers analyze, plan, design, document, and manage interior non-structural/non-seismic construction and alteration projects in compliance with applicable building design and construction, fire, life-safety, and energy codes, standards, regulations, and guidelines for the purpose of obtaining a building permit, as allowed by law.
Every PRAC question will be attached to a case study which will include various resources surrounding the design scenario. CIDQ case studies include: a project scenario, universal codes, a plan and other resources that might be needed to answer a question correctly. As with the multiple choice exams, all PRAC questions are worth one point and the question must be answered in its entirety. No partial credit will be given. Candidates are given 4 hours to complete the PRAC Exam.
Interior design includes a scope of services which may include any or all of the following tasks:
Project Management: Management of project budget, contracts, schedule, consultants, staffing, resources, and general business practices. Establish contractually independent relationships to coordinate with, and/or hire allied design professionals and consultants.
Project Goals: Understand, document, and confirm the clients and stakeholders goals and objectives, including design outcomes, space needs, project budget, and needs for specific or measurable outcomes.
Data Collection: Collect data from client and stakeholders by engaging in programming, surveys, focus groups, charrette exercises, and benchmarking to maximize design outcomes and occupant satisfaction.
Existing Conditions: Evaluate, assess, and document existing conditions of interior environments.
Conceptualization: Application of creative and innovative thinking that interprets collected project data and translates a unique image or abstract idea as a design concept, the foundation of a design solution. The concept is then described using visualization and communication strategies.
Selections and Materiality: Selection of interior building products, materials, and finishes; furniture, furnishings, equipment, and casework; signage; window treatments, and other non-structural/non-seismic interior elements, components, and assemblies. Selections shall be made based on client and occupant needs, project budget, maintenance and cleaning requirements, lifecycle performance, sustainable attributes, environmental impact, installation methods, and code-compliance.
Documentation: Develop contract documents for the purposes of communicating design intent and obtaining a building permit, as allowed by law. Documentation by phases may include schematic, design development, and construction drawings and specifications. Drawings may consist of floor plans, partition plans, reflected ceiling plans, and finish plans; furniture, furnishings, and equipment plans; wayfinding and signage plans; code plans; coordination plans; and elevations, sections, schedules, and details illustrating the design of non-load-bearing / non-seismic interior construction and/or alterations.
Coordination: Overseeing non-structural/non-seismic interior design scope in concert with the scope of allied design professionals and consultants, including, but not limited to, the work of architects, mechanical, electrical, plumbing, and fire-protection engineers and designers, and acoustical, audio-visual, low-voltage, food service, sustainability, security, technology, and other specialty consultants. Coordination can include, but is not limited to:
Placement, style and finish of mechanical, electrical, plumbing, and fire-protection devices, fixtures, and appurtenances (i.e., accessories) with the design of the interior environment.
Ceiling materials and heights; interior partition locations.
Acoustical appropriateness of spatial arrangements, construction, and finish materials.
Working closely with contractors to respect budgetary constraints and contribute to value engineering efforts.
Contract Administration: Administration of the contract as the owners agent, including the distribution and analysis of construction bids, construction administration, review of contractor payment applications, review of shop drawings and submittals, field observation, punch list reports, and project closeout.
Pre-Design and/or Post-Design Services: Tasks intended to measure success of the design solution by implementing various means of data collection, which may include occupant surveys, focus groups, walkthroughs, or stakeholder meetings. Collection and reporting findings can range from casually to scientifically gathered, depending on the projects scope and goals.
National Council for Interior Design Qualification CIDQ Qualification exam format
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National Council for Interior Design Qualification
https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/NCIDQ Question: 147
Specifications can be made most concise by
A. Avoiding the use of words like a, the, and all
B. Using descriptive specifications
C. Using phrases instead of complete sentences
D. Using reference standard specifications Answer: C Question: 148
Which design elements could be used to lower the apparent height of a ceiling?
A. A dark, highly textured ceiling
B. A light ceiling and textured walls
C. Strong horizontal lines on the walls
D. Fine-grained patterns on the ceiling and dark walls Answer: A Question: 149
To minimize conflicts in the contract documents, what is the LEAST important
action the interior designer can take?
A. Make sure terminology in the specification is the same as in the drawings
B. Show only dimensions on the drawings
C. Have someone check the drawings before they are issued
D. Write the specification after the drawings are essentially complete Answer: D Question: 150
A window covering that is made from fabric and generally not intended to be
opened is called
A. An Austrian shade
C. A curtain
D. A vertical blind Answer: C Question: 151
To detail a doorframe for a conference room where privacy is critical, which of
the following is LEAST likely to be required?
A. An automatic door bottom
B. A heavy-duty, silent door closer
C. A solid-core door
D. Neoprene gasketing Answer: B Question: 152
What type of resilient flooring would be the best choice for a commercial
A. Sheet vinyl
B. 1/8 in (3) commercial grade vinyl tile
C. Sheet rubber
D. Heavy-duty cork flooring Answer: A Question: 153
What symbol is used to indicate a floor-mounted telephone outlet?
D. D Answer: C Question: 154
Which of the following would be the LEAST desirable choice for a carpet
installation for hotel rooms that have concrete subfloors?
A. Wool carpet direct-glued
B. Nylon carpet stretched in over a foam cushion
C. Acrylic carpet direct-glued
D. Polyester carpet stretched in over a felt cushion Answer: A Question: 155
What is NOT required on a 1-hour rated door
A. Panic hardware
B. Ball-bearing hinges
C. Door closer
D. Metal frame Answer: A Question: 156
What type of schedule would be LEAST likely to be found in a set of interior or
A. Millwork schedule
B. Window schedule
C. Finish schedule
D. Equipment schedule Answer: B Question: 157
Wallpaper is most useful to a designer in creating
D. Texture Answer: C
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CIDQ Qualification exam format - BingNews
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https://killexams.com/exam_list/CIDQSample Entrance Exam
Read about the new Word Police training manual, Word Court, by Word Police Commissioner Barbara Wallraff.
Join a conversation on Word Police and Word Court in Atlantic Unbound's reader forum, Post & Riposte.
Read recent Word Court columns from The Atlantic Monthly, and browse the Word Fugitives archive, in The Court Record.
Sample Entrance Exam
Word Police exams consist of questions similar to the ones below. Here beneath each question we've told you which answer is correct, and explained why.
When you are taking an real exam, once you've answered all five questions, press the "Submit answers" button to have your responses scored. If you're not sure of the answer to any question, why not take your best guess? (No points are deducted for wrong answers.) You'll need to get at least four answers right to be allowed to proceed. On the next page, you will be asked a final question that you must answer correctly in order to pass the exam.
The real exams provide a clue about the intent of the questions that isn't available here -- namely, that each of them is the test for a particular squad or division. The questions on the entrance exam for any given squad will have to do with that squad's specialty. So, for example, on the entrance exam for the Number Unit, the focus of the questions will tend to be grammatical number (say, "the Word Police is ..." or "the Word Police are ..."?).
Sun, 27 Dec 2015 21:39:00 -0600text/htmlhttps://www.theatlantic.com/past/docs/unbound/wordpolice/sample.htmSample CRCM exam Questions
The following questions are representative of the types of questions you will find on the CRCM (Certified Regulatory Compliance Manager) exam.
1. A borrower has a right to rescind a loan agreement in all of the following situations except:
a. A line of credit used for the borrower's business, secured by the borrower's primary dwelling b. A revolving line of credit secured by the borrower's primary dwelling used to Boost the borrower's home c. An increase of a line of credit from $5,000 to $10,000 secured by the borrower's primary dwelling d. A loan to pay off a contract for a deed secured by the borrower's primary dwelling
2. When opening a deposit account online, Regulation E disclosures MUST be provided at the time of account opening or:
a. Before the first EFT occurs b. Along with the first periodic statement c. Within three business days of account opening d. Within three business days of a customer's request for the EFT service
3. The primary responsibility for overseeing a bank’s inherent compliance risk should lie with which of the following?
a. Internal audit b. Consumers c. Board of Directors d. Compliance officer
4. A branch manager finds an unexplained $7,000 cash shortage in Teller #1's cash drawer. Which of the following actions must the bank take?
a. File a Currency Transaction Report (CTR) with the IRS b. Discharge Teller #1 immediately c. Send a notice of adverse action to the bank's federal regulator d. File a Suspicious Activity Report (SAR)
5. A compliance professional recently discovered the bank did not file and disclose an accurate covered agreement, as required by the CRA Sunshine Act. In order to ensure correct reporting in the future, what must be provided?
a. All individual mortgage loans b. Grants or loans to fulfill CRA activity c. Non-public or confidential information that will be provided in the public file d. A copy of the agreement to the regulatory agency 24 months after the end of the term
1. a 2. a 3. c 4. d 5. b
Looking to prepare for the exam? ABA offers CRCM exam Online Prep.
The following questions are representative of the types of questions you will find on the examination.
1. A trust you administer, in a jurisdiction that has adopted Directed Trust statutes, contains language in the trust document appointing a fiduciary for investment purposes. Your institution is a directed trustee responsible as a fiduciary for administration only. You believe that the investment fiduciary is abusing this power and is directing you to make an imprudent investment. You should:
a. Tell the advisor he must first obtain the consents of the current beneficiary and presumptive remaindermen. b. Confront the advisor and, if the situation cannot be remedied, seek court guidance. c. Follow the advisor's directions nonetheless. d. Obtain the written consent of all fiduciaries.
2. Your client is married and has a net worth of $12 million, which includes a jointly owned house worth $2.5 million. His wife has assets of $1 million. They have simple wills leaving everything to each other and then to their two children in equal shares. The BEST advice to reduce federal estate taxes is that he:
a. Leave everything to his wife in his will. b. give $14,000 per year to each of his two children. c. Incorporate a credit shelter trust provision in his will. d. Transfer the house ownership completely to his wife.
3. Distributions from which of the following CANNOT be rolled over into an IRA?
a. 401(k) b. Money Purchase Pension Plan c. Profit Sharing Plan d. Rabbi Trust
4. John creates a trust with income during life to Sam, the remainder to Sue. John retains the right to amend or revoke the agreement. Sue will have to disclaim her interest in the trust within 9 months of:
a. John's death b. Sam's death c. The creation of the trust d. The appointment of the executor or administrator of Sam's estate
5. A client faces a 30% federal income tax rate and a 5% state tax rate. Municipal bonds issued in the client’s state of residence are exempt from state taxes. Considering current income only, and not adjusting for the federal deductibility of state taxes, which of the following represents a proper comparison of bond attractiveness?
a. A 10% Treasury bond is more attractive than a 7.2% municipal bond issued by a state of which the client is not a resident. b. A 6.0% bond issued by the client's state of residence is more attractive than a 7.2% municipal bond issued by another state. c. An 18% corporate bond is more attractive than a 12% municipal bond issued by the client's state of residence. d. A 6.75% municipal bond issued by the client's state of residence is more attractive than a 7% municipal bond issued by a U.S. territory.
1. b 2. c 3. d 4. a 5. a
Fri, 07 Aug 2020 04:30:00 -0500entext/htmlhttps://www.aba.com/training-events/certifications/certified-trust-and-fiduciary-advisor/prepare-for-the-exam/ctfa-sample-exam-questionsExamination advice
A typical examination question in Mathematics will have several parts to it. Some parts (most usually at the beginning of the question) test your knowledge, by asking you to reproduce "bookwork", i.e. material presented in the lectures. Really, these parts test how well you've revised. Occasionally, especially in certain more advanced courses, there are entire questions that are bookwork. In some courses, some pieces of bookwork come up in the exam almost every year. In other courses, hardly any bookwork is set explicitly.
Tip: Figure out which pieces of bookwork come up most frequently, and make sure you can answer those questions easily and quickly.
You would be surprised how many poor attempts at routine bookwork questions we see every year. These are the parts of the questions that we expect students to be able to do.
Other parts of examination questions involve a "problem". In a "Methods" course, this will typically involve you applying a known technique from the course, and again this is something we expect you to be able to do. In a Pure Mathematics course, you might be asked to prove a result, or to apply a result in a particular setting.
Tip: Sometimes (but certainly not always!), the first part of the question is intended as a big hint as to how you should approach the second part.
Many exam questions, especially those that are otherwise very routine, have a last part (a "rider") which is more challenging than the rest of the question. This is quite deliberate, and the intention is to test whether you've really understood the material.
Tip: Do try all the riders (they're not always so hard after all!) but don't waste too much time on them in an exam if there are other things you can tackle instead.
Students sometimes seem to be annoyed that they have to do something clever to get 100% on a question. Don't forget, in many other subjects it's practically impossible to score 100% on a question!
Tip: Make sure you've answered all the parts of the question. Sometimes you're asked to do seven or eight things, and it's easy to overlook one.
Some questions in the exam will require you to recall and apply equations you have learned in class.
Other questions will ask you to use the ‘Physics Equation Sheet’. This is a set list of equations given to you in the exam. In this case you should find the correct equation and apply it in your working.
Make sure you read the question carefully so you understand what you are being asked to do. If an equation is given then use it, it’s not a trick.
Sat, 25 Jul 2020 16:11:00 -0500en-GBtext/htmlhttps://www.bbc.co.uk/bitesize/guides/zx7vw6f/revision/7Sample exam questions - radiation and waves - OCR 21st Century
You will sit two exam papers at the end of your GCSE Physics course. Paper 1 is called "Breadth in physics", and paper 2 is called "Depth in physics".
The Breadth in physics paper will contain questions worth one to four marks. The Depth in physics paper will contain questions worth one to five marks, plus two six-mark extended writing questions.
Each exam paper will contain:
You will need to remember, select and clearly communicate facts and explanations that you have learnt from studying the specification.
These questions may, at first, appear to be about things you haven't learnt. But the question will give you all the information you need to answer it when combined with your own knowledge and understanding from your studies.
To get full marks on this type of question, you will usually have to do more than just processing data (eg doing calculations or plotting a graph) or describing it (eg describing the pattern in the results or the shape of the graph). You will have to come up with your own conclusion or decision based on the evidence you have been given.
Sometimes, you may be asked whether you agree with a statement or a conclusion. You may not get any marks for simply stating that you agree or disagree - more marks may come from explaining and justifying your decision. Your answer must make it clear to the examiner that your decision is based on the evidence you have been given in the question and your own knowledge and understanding of physics.
Mon, 13 Nov 2023 03:38:00 -0600en-GBtext/htmlhttps://www.bbc.co.uk/bitesize/guides/zpyjsrd/revision/1Who Can Take the Patent Bar Exam?
In order to represent inventors in their quest to obtain US patents you must be admitted to practice in front of the United States Patent Office. In order to become a patent attorney or patent agent it is necessary to take and pass the Patent Bar Examination. Only those individuals with scientific education are allowed to sit for the examination, and you do not need any legal training to take the exam. The burden is placed on individuals applying for the examination to demonstrate that they possess the scientific and technical training necessary to provide valuable service to patent Applicants. An Applicant will be considered to have the necessary scientific and technical training if he or she provides an official transcript showing that a Bachelor’s degree was awarded in one of the following subjects by an accredited United States college or university, or that the equivalent to a Bachelor’s degree was awarded by a foreign university in one of the following subjects:
Please note that with Computer Science degrees the school the degree is awarded by must be accredited by the Computer Science Accreditation Commission (CSAC) of the Computing Sciences Accreditation Board (CSAB), or by the Computing Accreditation Commission (CAC) of the Accreditation Board for Engineering and Technology (ABET), on or before the date the degree was awarded. Computer science degrees that are accredited may be found on the Internet (http://www.abet.org).
An applicant with a Bachelor’s degree in one of the approved subjects must submit an official original transcript from the college or university. A diploma, copy of the diploma, or copy of the transcript will not be accepted. The official original transcript will be accepted from applicants. The college or university transcript must be official/original and include the university stamp or seal.
An applicant with a Bachelor’s degree in a subject not listed, such as Biological Sciences, Pharmacy, Mechanical Technology, or a Computer Science degree from an institution that was not accredited by the CSAC of the CSAB or by the CAC of ABET on or before the date the degree was awarded must establish to the satisfaction of the OED Director that he or she possesses the necessary scientific and technical training under either Category B or Category C.
Ironically, the Patent Office does not accept advanced degrees as per se evidence that the applicant has sufficient scientific training to presumptively qualify to sit for the Patent Bare Exam. Thus, an applicant who has a Master’s or higher level degree in one of the subject areas listed above, but does not have a Bachelor’s degree in such subject, must established to the satisfaction of the OED Director that he or she possesses the necessary scientific and technical training. Possession of the necessary scientific and technical training may be satisfactorily established in the manner set forth under either Category B or Category C.
For more information please these IPWatchdog.com articles:
Wed, 15 Dec 2021 14:00:00 -0600entext/htmlhttps://ipwatchdog.com/patent-bar-exam/patent-bar-qualifications/Bachelor of Fine Arts In Interior Design & Pre-Architecture
Licensure and Certification Information
In the University’s BFA in Interior Design program students can start the path towards becoming a Certified Interior Designer. Specific education and work experience requirements exist to be eligible to sit for the NCIDQ Examination. Students that complete this are eligible to sit for the National Council for Interior Design Qualification (NCIDQ) examination.
For the BFA Interior Design program:
Our curriculum meets the educational requirements for Interior Design licensure in LA and NV.
Our curriculum meets the educational requirements for registration as an Interior Designer in AL, AR, CA, CT, DC, FL, GA, IL, IN, IA, KY, ME, MD, MN, MS, MO, NJ, NM, NY, NC, OK, PR, TN, TX, UT, VA and WI.
We have not yet made a determination if our curriculum meets the Interior Design licensure requirements in AS, GU, MP and VI.
The following states do not regulate Interior Design licensure: AK, AZ, CO, DE, HI, ID, KS, MA, MI, MT, NE, NH, ND, OH, OR, PA, RI, SC, SD, VT, WA, WV and WY.
Please note that we are currently working through the states' requirements and will update this information as we make the determinations. Students who are interested in working in any of these states are strongly encouraged to contact the appropriate state board to confirm that jurisdiction’s requirements.
Click the link below for contact information on State licensure boards.
Click here for more information on Licensure & Professional Certification Disclosures.
Thu, 09 Nov 2023 12:04:00 -0600entext/htmlhttps://www.newhaven.edu/arts-sciences/undergraduate-programs/interior-design/index.phpPennsylvania to Delay NextGen Bar exam Rollout
Pennsylvania has chosen not to adopt the NextGen bar exam when it first rolls out in July 2026, according to a letter sent to Pennsylvania Bar exam stakeholders on Monday.
Pennsylvania currently uses the Uniform Bar Examination test format for prospective attorneys, initially switching to the UBE format for the July 2022 exam. The letter states that the NCBE will allow the UBE to continue to be administered through July 2027, although the NextGen exam will be available starting July 2026.
The letter states that “the board and court will continue to study the NextGen exam as the NCBE continues to release information about the exam itself and the administration process.” However, it does not provide a prospective start date for the administration of the NextGen exam.
“It’s major for the commonwealth to have announced they will not be an early adopter,” said Thomas R. Kline School of Law of Duquesne University director of bar studies Ashley London. “The NextGen bar exam should be a complete sea change from the memorization-heavy bar exam as it exists today.”
The NextGen exam is set to take nine hours to complete divided across two days, according to an end-of-August announcement by the National Conference of Bar Examiners. Each of the three-hour sessions will include two integrated question sets, one performance task, and 40 multiple choice questions each.
Ultimately, the Pennsylvania Board’s decision allows test takers and law schools more time to prepare for the new exam format, despite the uncertainty regarding when the NextGen exam will be administered in the state.
“I think that it’s incumbent upon the bar to really make the case for a transparent process for students to prepare as successfully as they can,” said Temple University Beasley School of Law Dean Rachel Rebouche. “Having as much participation in what this test looks like and is administered is really important.”
There are eight multiple choice question examples and six integrated question examples currently available on the NextGen Bar exam website, with no samples currently available for longer writing tasks.
However, the transition to the NextGen test may call back to several concerns when the UBE was first implemented in Pennsylvania. Pennsylvania currently holds the highest cut score in the nation for bar passage at 272, a score that has remained unchanged since the UBE was first rolled out.
At the time, multiple bar exam experts expressedconcernover retaining the same passage standards between the former bar exam and the UBE as well as the potential for a hit in passage rates in the state. Those concerns for falling passage rates were affirmed by the July2022 results, which showed that only 67% of test-takers passed the exam.
July 2023’sexam showed more improved results with 71.38% of test takers passing, reflective of schools and students finding their footing with the format.
It is unclear whether the cut score to pass the bar in Pennsylvania will change along with the rollout of the new test.
“I hope there’s consultation about what the pass rate should be,” said Rebouche. “[With us] at 272, when every state around is 266 … It’s going to shape people’s decisions about whether or not to sit in the state.”
A representative from the Pennsylvania Board of Law Examiners declined to comment for this article, as did a representative for the Supreme Court of Pennsylvania.
Tue, 17 Oct 2023 07:47:00 -0500entext/htmlhttps://www.law.com/thelegalintelligencer/2023/10/17/pennsylvania-to-delay-nextgen-bar-exam-rollout/?slreturn=20231017095313Students get final crack at traditional SAT exam before big changes | College ConnectionYour browser is not supported | mycentraljersey.com
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Sat, 21 Oct 2023 22:09:00 -0500en-UStext/htmlhttps://www.mycentraljersey.com/story/news/education/college/2023/10/22/sat-exam-digital-changes/71230565007/