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JN0-222 Automation and DevOps, Associate (JNCIA-DevOps) test format | http://babelouedstory.com/
JN0-222 test format - Automation and DevOps, Associate (JNCIA-DevOps) Updated: 2023
JN0-222 Automation and DevOps, Associate (JNCIA-DevOps)
Exam Specification: JN0-222 Automation and DevOps, Associate (JNCIA-DevOps)
Exam Name: JN0-222 Automation and DevOps, Associate (JNCIA-DevOps)
Exam Code: JN0-222
Exam Duration: 90 minutes
Passing Score: 65%
Exam Format: Multiple-choice
Exam Delivery: Proctored online or at a testing center
Course Outline:
1. Introduction to Automation and DevOps
- Understanding the concepts and benefits of automation and DevOps
- Key principles and practices in automation and DevOps
- Automation tools and frameworks
2. Source Code Management and Version Control
- Introduction to source code management (SCM)
- Version control systems and their features
- Branching and merging strategies
3. Continuous Integration (CI) and Continuous Delivery (CD)
- CI/CD principles and practices
- Building and testing automation in CI/CD pipelines
- Integration and deployment strategies
4. Infrastructure as Code (IaC)
- IaC concepts and benefits
- Infrastructure provisioning and configuration management tools
- Templating and scripting for infrastructure automation
5. Containerization and Orchestration
- Introduction to containerization technologies (e.g., Docker)
- Container orchestration tools (e.g., Kubernetes)
- Managing and scaling containerized applications
6. Monitoring, Logging, and Analytics
- Monitoring and observability in DevOps
- Log management and analysis
- Metrics and performance monitoring
7. Security and Compliance in DevOps
- Security considerations in automation and DevOps
- Secure development practices
- Compliance frameworks and regulations
Exam Objectives:
1. Demonstrate understanding of automation and DevOps concepts and principles.
2. Apply source code management and version control techniques.
3. Implement continuous integration and continuous delivery pipelines.
4. Utilize infrastructure as code for provisioning and configuration management.
5. Deploy and manage containerized applications using orchestration tools.
6. Implement monitoring, logging, and analytics in DevOps environments.
7. Understand security considerations and compliance requirements in DevOps practices.
Exam Syllabus:
Section 1: Introduction to Automation and DevOps (10%)
- Automation and DevOps concepts and benefits
- Key principles and practices in automation and DevOps
- Automation tools and frameworks overview
Section 2: Source Code Management and Version Control (15%)
- Source code management (SCM) fundamentals
- Version control systems and their features
- Branching and merging strategies in SCM
Section 3: Continuous Integration (CI) and Continuous Delivery (CD) (20%)
- CI/CD principles and practices
- Automation in CI/CD pipelines (building, testing, and deploying)
- Integration and deployment strategies in CI/CD
Section 4: Infrastructure as Code (IaC) (20%)
- Introduction to infrastructure as code (IaC)
- Infrastructure provisioning and configuration management tools
- Templating and scripting for infrastructure automation
Section 5: Containerization and Orchestration (15%)
- Containerization technologies (e.g., Docker) and their features
- Container orchestration tools (e.g., Kubernetes)
- Managing and scaling containerized applications
Section 6: Monitoring, Logging, and Analytics (10%)
- Monitoring and observability in DevOps
- Log management and analysis tools
- Metrics and performance monitoring in DevOps
Section 7: Security and Compliance in DevOps (10%)
- Security considerations in automation and DevOps
- Secure development practices in DevOps
- Compliance frameworks and regulations in DevOps
Automation and DevOps, Associate (JNCIA-DevOps) Juniper (JNCIA-DevOps) test format
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Juniper
JN0-222
Automation and DevOps, Associate (JNCIA-DevOps)
http://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/JN0-222 Question: 34
Exhibit.
Referring to the exhibit, which statement is correct?
A. The RPC execution output is saved to a file on the Ansible control machine
B. The RPC execution output is not saved
C. The RPC execution output is saved to a file on R1
D. The RPC execution output is saved to memory on R1 Answer: B Question: 35
Which feature is used in XML to ensure that all attributes and elements have unique names?
A. selectors
B. predicate
C. namespace
D. XPath Answer: D Question: 36
Exhibit.
Referring to the exhibit, which XPath statement would retrieve the commit-user attribute in the candidate
configuration?
A. configuration/@ junos: commit-user
B. configuration:@ junos: commit-user
C. configuration/junos: commit-user
D. configuration/commit-user Answer: B
Explanation: Question: 37
What are two components of the Waterfall model of software development? (Choose two.)
A. a large volume of code changes between releases
B. a small volume of code changes between releases
C. a short interval of time between releases
D. a long interval of time between releases Answer: A,D Question: 38
Which two programing languages would be used for on-box scripting with Junos devices? (Choose two.)
A. Python
B. Puppet
C. Ansible
D. XSLT Answer: A,D Question: 39
Exhibit.
You have the configuration shown in the exhibit, but are unable to access the REST API Explorer.
Which configuration is necessary to solve this problem?
A. Configure the rest service to be active on port 80.
B. Configure an IPv4 address on ge-0/0/0 0.
C. Configure a secondary IPv6 address on ge-0/0/0.0.
D. Configure a firewall filter to explicitly permit SS Answer: C Question: 40
Which XML feature is used to ensure that elements defined in multiple schemas would be used in the same document
without conflicts?
A. Attributes
B. Predicates
C. Selectors
D. Namespaces Answer: A Question: 41
Referring to the exhibit.
which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The retrieved configuration will be from the Junos candidate configuration.
B. The configuration will be retrieved in JSON format.
C. The configuration will be retrieved in XML format.
D. The retrieved configuration will be from the Junos active configuration. Answer: A,B
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https://killexams.com/exam_list/JuniperSample Entrance Exam
Read about the new Word Police training manual, Word Court, by Word Police Commissioner Barbara Wallraff.
Join a conversation on Word Police and Word Court in Atlantic Unbound's reader forum, Post & Riposte.
Read accurate Word Court columns from The Atlantic Monthly, and browse the Word Fugitives archive, in The Court Record.
Sample Entrance Exam
Word Police exams consist of questions similar to the ones below. Here beneath each question we've told you which answer is correct, and explained why.
When you are taking an real exam, once you've answered all five questions, press the "Submit answers" button to have your responses scored. If you're not sure of the answer to any question, why not take your best guess? (No points are deducted for wrong answers.) You'll need to get at least four answers right to be allowed to proceed. On the next page, you will be asked a final question that you must answer correctly in order to pass the exam.
The real exams provide a clue about the intent of the questions that isn't available here -- namely, that each of them is the test for a particular squad or division. The questions on the entrance test for any given squad will have to do with that squad's specialty. So, for example, on the entrance test for the Number Unit, the focus of the questions will tend to be grammatical number (say, "the Word Police is ..." or "the Word Police are ..."?).
Sun, 27 Dec 2015 21:39:00 -0600text/htmlhttps://www.theatlantic.com/past/docs/unbound/wordpolice/sample.htmSample CRCM test Questions
The following questions are representative of the types of questions you will find on the CRCM (Certified Regulatory Compliance Manager) exam.
1. A borrower has a right to rescind a loan agreement in all of the following situations except:
a. A line of credit used for the borrower's business, secured by the borrower's primary dwelling b. A revolving line of credit secured by the borrower's primary dwelling used to Excellerate the borrower's home c. An increase of a line of credit from $5,000 to $10,000 secured by the borrower's primary dwelling d. A loan to pay off a contract for a deed secured by the borrower's primary dwelling
2. When opening a deposit account online, Regulation E disclosures MUST be provided at the time of account opening or:
a. Before the first EFT occurs b. Along with the first periodic statement c. Within three business days of account opening d. Within three business days of a customer's request for the EFT service
3. The primary responsibility for overseeing a bank’s inherent compliance risk should lie with which of the following?
a. Internal audit b. Consumers c. Board of Directors d. Compliance officer
4. A branch manager finds an unexplained $7,000 cash shortage in Teller #1's cash drawer. Which of the following actions must the bank take?
a. File a Currency Transaction Report (CTR) with the IRS b. Discharge Teller #1 immediately c. Send a notice of adverse action to the bank's federal regulator d. File a Suspicious Activity Report (SAR)
5. A compliance professional recently discovered the bank did not file and disclose an accurate covered agreement, as required by the CRA Sunshine Act. In order to ensure correct reporting in the future, what must be provided?
a. All individual mortgage loans b. Grants or loans to fulfill CRA activity c. Non-public or confidential information that will be provided in the public file d. A copy of the agreement to the regulatory agency 24 months after the end of the term
Answer Key
1. a 2. a 3. c 4. d 5. b
Looking to prepare for the exam? ABA offers CRCM test Online Prep.
Fri, 20 Sep 2019 21:57:00 -0500entext/htmlhttps://www.aba.com/training-events/certifications/certified-regulatory-compliance-manager/prepare-for-the-exam/sample-crcm-exam-questionsCTFA trial test Questions
The following questions are representative of the types of questions you will find on the examination.
1. A trust you administer, in a jurisdiction that has adopted Directed Trust statutes, contains language in the trust document appointing a fiduciary for investment purposes. Your institution is a directed trustee responsible as a fiduciary for administration only. You believe that the investment fiduciary is abusing this power and is directing you to make an imprudent investment. You should:
a. Tell the advisor he must first obtain the consents of the current beneficiary and presumptive remaindermen. b. Confront the advisor and, if the situation cannot be remedied, seek court guidance. c. Follow the advisor's directions nonetheless. d. Obtain the written consent of all fiduciaries.
2. Your client is married and has a net worth of $12 million, which includes a jointly owned house worth $2.5 million. His wife has assets of $1 million. They have simple wills leaving everything to each other and then to their two children in equal shares. The BEST advice to reduce federal estate taxes is that he:
a. Leave everything to his wife in his will. b. provide $14,000 per year to each of his two children. c. Incorporate a credit shelter trust provision in his will. d. Transfer the house ownership completely to his wife.
3. Distributions from which of the following CANNOT be rolled over into an IRA?
a. 401(k) b. Money Purchase Pension Plan c. Profit Sharing Plan d. Rabbi Trust
4. John creates a trust with income during life to Sam, the remainder to Sue. John retains the right to amend or revoke the agreement. Sue will have to disclaim her interest in the trust within 9 months of:
a. John's death b. Sam's death c. The creation of the trust d. The appointment of the executor or administrator of Sam's estate
5. A client faces a 30% federal income tax rate and a 5% state tax rate. Municipal bonds issued in the client’s state of residence are exempt from state taxes. Considering current income only, and not adjusting for the federal deductibility of state taxes, which of the following represents a proper comparison of bond attractiveness?
a. A 10% Treasury bond is more attractive than a 7.2% municipal bond issued by a state of which the client is not a resident. b. A 6.0% bond issued by the client's state of residence is more attractive than a 7.2% municipal bond issued by another state. c. An 18% corporate bond is more attractive than a 12% municipal bond issued by the client's state of residence. d. A 6.75% municipal bond issued by the client's state of residence is more attractive than a 7% municipal bond issued by a U.S. territory.
1. b 2. c 3. d 4. a 5. a
Fri, 07 Aug 2020 04:30:00 -0500entext/htmlhttps://www.aba.com/training-events/certifications/certified-trust-and-fiduciary-advisor/prepare-for-the-exam/ctfa-sample-exam-questionsAIBE 18 test 2023: A Comprehensive Guide to SuccessThe All India Bar Examination (AIBE) is a crucial step for those who want to become lawyers in India. Passing this test is a must for law graduates who want to practice law in the country. To pass this challenging test, you need a well-planned preparation strategy. The Bar Council of Indiawill hold the 18th All India Bar Examination on October 29, 2023, all over India.
You can get your test admit card on October 20, 2023, from the Council's official website. With the test approaching soon, we're sharing some important tips to help you do well in the test. Following these tips can make your test experience smoother. • Understanding the test Pattern: Before starting AIBE preparation, it's important to gain a comprehensive understanding of the examination pattern. Familiarize yourself with critical aspects such as the total number of questions, the marking scheme, and the allotted duration for the examination. This step is important in helping you plan your study schedule effectively and devise a strategy for time management during the examination. • Getting familiar with the Syllabus: The AIBE examination covers a vast array of legal subjects. To excel in this examination, it's important to thoroughly familiarize yourself with the syllabus. This involves identifying your strengths and weaknesses in various subjects and prioritizing your study according to your proficiency level. By creating a roadmap for your preparation, you can effectively allocate your time and energy to areas that require greater attention.
• Gathering Quality Study Material: To succeed in the AIBE, it's crucial to choose study materials that are both reliable and up-to-date. This includes textbooks, reference books, and online resources that are widely recognized for their quality and relevance to the exam. Keep an eye on the latest AIBE notifications and syllabus updates to find recommended books and study material that match your preparation needs. • Creating a Study Schedule: To prepare effectively for the AIBE, it's important to create a study schedule that is realistic and well-structured. This schedule should fit your personal learning style and the time you have available for studying. Divide your study time into smaller, manageable blocks, focusing on specific Topics and subjects each day. This strategic approach will help you Excellerate your overall preparedness for the exam. • Practice with Mock Tests: To get ready for the AIBE, it's essential to include mock tests and previous years' question papers in your preparation plan. These resources are helpful in two ways: they let you see how prepared you are and also show you areas where you need to improve. By regularly practising with mock tests, you'll get used to the test format, become more comfortable with the testing environment, and learn how to manage your time effectively during the exam. • Focusing on Conceptual Understanding: When preparing for the AIBE, it's important to focus on understanding legal concepts deeply and thoroughly. Instead of simply memorizing facts, aim to grasp the underlying principles and complexities of the subjects. This approach will equip you with the knowledge and skills needed to answer application-based questions, which are frequently asked in the AIBE. • Regular Revision: Regular revision is incredibly important for remembering information and strengthening your understanding of key concepts. Make short notes and summaries to help you revise quickly and effectively. By going back to important Topics regularly, you'll make sure that the information stays fresh in your mind. • Staying Updated with Legal Developments: The legal world is always changing, with new developments, important court decisions, and changes to laws shaping the field. Keeping up with accurate legal developments is not only important for the AIBE but also crucial for a successful legal career. Knowing about current legal issues and changes in laws will deepen your understanding and provide you the expertise needed to answer difficult questions. • Prioritizing Mental and Physical Well-being: Good preparation goes beyond just studying. Maintaining a healthy lifestyle is essential to ensure you are mentally sharp and focused during your AIBE preparation and the test itself. Getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and eating a balanced diet are essential for your well-being. By taking care of your physical and mental health, you'll be better prepared to handle the challenges of the AIBE. • Seeking Guidance and Support: Don't be afraid to ask for help from experienced mentors, teachers, or classmates during your AIBE preparation journey. Their knowledge and support can be extremely valuable in guiding you through the process and overcoming obstacles. Talking to others, asking questions, and learning from their expertise can greatly Excellerate your overall preparedness for the exam. Tue, 17 Oct 2023 09:39:00 -0500entext/htmlhttps://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/education/news/aibe-18-exam-2023-a-comprehensive-guide-to-success/articleshow/104496693.cmsNever Let Me Go trial test question
There are several things to keep in mind when answering the extract based question:
Read the extract more than once to make sure you have fully understood it.
When you are memorizing the extract you should highlight the key words and phrases that will help you to answer the question.
Make sure that any quotes you include in your answer are brief and to the point. Quotes should support your answer but should not be too long.
Your answer to the extract-based question should only focus on the real extract. Do not comment on other parts of the novel as you will not receive any marks for doing so.
Wed, 11 Oct 2023 23:39:00 -0500en-GBtext/htmlhttps://www.bbc.co.uk/bitesize/guides/z8v9rdm/revision/110 Tips to Ace Cambridge Speaking ExamThe Cambridge Speaking test is an important assessment that evaluates an individual’s English speaking skills with precision and depth. Designed by Cambridge Assessment English, this test is globally recognised for its rigorous evaluation of candidates’ ability to communicate effectively and fluently in English. As a comprehensive measure of spoken language proficiency, the test challenges candidates with a variety of tasks, ranging from discussing everyday Topics to analysing complex ideas, thereby assessing their vocabulary range, grammatical accuracy, pronunciation, and overall fluency. By emphasising real-life situations, the Cambridge Speaking test not only tests language abilities but also hones the candidates’ practical communication skills.
Through structured interactions and dynamic tasks, the test provides a platform for candidates to showcase their language prowess and demonstrate their confidence in various social and professional contexts. Check out the 10 tips to qualify the Cambridge Speaking Examination; Familiarise yourself with the test format and rubrics The Cambridge Speaking test is divided into four parts: Part 1: Introduction and interview (4-5 minutes) Part 2: Individual long turn (3-4 minutes) Part 3: Two-way discussion (4-5 minutes) Part 4: Discussion on a Topic of general interest (4-5 minutes) The rubrics for each part of the test describe the criteria that the examiner will use to assess your performance. You can find the rubrics on the Cambridge English website.
Learn about different language functions and the words associated with them The Cambridge Speaking test assesses your ability to use English in a variety of contexts, such as expressing opinions, giving and receiving instructions, and describing experiences. Familiarise yourself with the different language functions and the words and phrases that are typically used to perform them. Practice with your friends or classmates One of the best ways to Excellerate your speaking skills is to practice with other people. Find a friend or classmate who is also preparing for the Cambridge Speaking test and practice having conversations with each other. Watch the trial videos available online There are many trial videos of Cambridge Speaking Exams available online. Watching these videos can provide you a good idea of what to expect on the day of the exam. Ask your teachers to have more mock speaking sessions in class Your teachers can help you to practice for the Cambridge Speaking test by giving you feedback on your performance and helping you to identify areas where you need to improve. Talk in the mirror Talking in the mirror is a great way to practice speaking English without the pressure of having another person present. It can also help you to become more aware of your body language and facial expressions. Talk aloud Whenever you can, try to talk aloud in English, even if you are just talking to yourself. This will help you to become more comfortable speaking English and to Excellerate your fluency. Listen to interviews and podcasts Listening to English interviews and podcasts is a great way to expose yourself to different accents and dialects of English. It can also help you to learn new vocabulary and phrases. Be yourself The examiner wants to get to know the real you, so don't try to be someone you're not. Be confident and relaxed, and let your personality shine through. Don't be afraid to make mistakes Everyone makes mistakes, especially when they are learning a new language. The important thing is to not let your mistakes discourage you. Keep practicing and speaking English as much as you can. Thu, 26 Oct 2023 15:04:00 -0500entext/htmlhttps://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/education/news/10-tips-to-ace-cambridge-speaking-exam/articleshow/104734693.cmsSample test questions - radiation and waves - OCR 21st Century
You will sit two test papers at the end of your GCSE Physics course. Paper 1 is called "Breadth in physics", and paper 2 is called "Depth in physics".
The Breadth in physics paper will contain questions worth one to four marks. The Depth in physics paper will contain questions worth one to five marks, plus two six-mark extended writing questions.
Each test paper will contain:
You will need to remember, select and clearly communicate facts and explanations that you have learnt from studying the specification.
These questions may, at first, appear to be about things you haven't learnt. But the question will provide you all the information you need to answer it when combined with your own knowledge and understanding from your studies.
To get full marks on this type of question, you will usually have to do more than just processing data (eg doing calculations or plotting a graph) or describing it (eg describing the pattern in the results or the shape of the graph). You will have to come up with your own conclusion or decision based on the evidence you have been given.
Sometimes, you may be asked whether you agree with a statement or a conclusion. You may not get any marks for simply stating that you agree or disagree - more marks may come from explaining and justifying your decision. Your answer must make it clear to the examiner that your decision is based on the evidence you have been given in the question and your own knowledge and understanding of physics.
Mon, 13 Nov 2023 03:38:00 -0600en-GBtext/htmlhttps://www.bbc.co.uk/bitesize/guides/zpyjsrd/revision/1Examination advice
A typical examination question in Mathematics will have several parts to it. Some parts (most usually at the beginning of the question) test your knowledge, by asking you to reproduce "bookwork", i.e. material presented in the lectures. Really, these parts test how well you've revised. Occasionally, especially in certain more advanced courses, there are entire questions that are bookwork. In some courses, some pieces of bookwork come up in the test almost every year. In other courses, hardly any bookwork is set explicitly.
Tip: Figure out which pieces of bookwork come up most frequently, and make sure you can answer those questions easily and quickly.
You would be surprised how many poor attempts at routine bookwork questions we see every year. These are the parts of the questions that we expect students to be able to do.
Other parts of examination questions involve a "problem". In a "Methods" course, this will typically involve you applying a known technique from the course, and again this is something we expect you to be able to do. In a Pure Mathematics course, you might be asked to prove a result, or to apply a result in a particular setting.
Tip: Sometimes (but certainly not always!), the first part of the question is intended as a big hint as to how you should approach the second part.
Many test questions, especially those that are otherwise very routine, have a last part (a "rider") which is more challenging than the rest of the question. This is quite deliberate, and the intention is to test whether you've really understood the material.
Tip: Do try all the riders (they're not always so hard after all!) but don't waste too much time on them in an test if there are other things you can tackle instead.
Students sometimes seem to be annoyed that they have to do something clever to get 100% on a question. Don't forget, in many other subjects it's practically impossible to score 100% on a question!
Tip: Make sure you've answered all the parts of the question. Sometimes you're asked to do seven or eight things, and it's easy to overlook one.
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Sat, 21 Oct 2023 22:09:00 -0500en-UStext/htmlhttps://www.mycentraljersey.com/story/news/education/college/2023/10/22/sat-exam-digital-changes/71230565007/The WMU Graduate Music History and Theory Entrance Exams
This site is specifically designed to help incoming graduate students at the Western Michigan University School of Music prepare to take the comprehensive entrance exams in music history and theory. It also is a means for current graduate music majors to study before they retake any section of the entrance test that they did not pass the first time. It is intended as a review-- not a replacement for dedicated courses in music theory, or undergraduate survey courses/seminars in the six historical style periods of Western art music.
Music History
The music history and literature entrance test is divided into seven sections:
Listening Identification: Multiple choice (six examples, one for each era). Identify the genre and the probable composer.
Note: The score identification section for each era have 2 one-page score excerpts (for each, you are asked to identify the genre, and the most probable composer, from multiple-choice lists)
How to Study with the Interactive Music History review modules There are six interactive study modules for the music history review (see left-side index on this page), combining interactive graphic timelines, glossaries, brief composer descriptions, and information on specific pieces you should know (with score excerpts and links to YouTube clips). After you have read the basic background about a piece and looked as its score excerpt, you should listen to at least part of its YouTube example. It is pointless to memorize terms and definitions unless you can connect them to real music.
Music Theory
The graduate music theory entrance test is divided into three main aspects:
Harmony
20th-century Techniques
Form
Harmony This part of the test covers all aspects of traditional diatonic and chromatic functional harmony through multiple-choice questions of the following types:
- Match terms to definitions - Identify proper and improper voice leading in given musical examples - Identify the chord type, harmonic function or cadence type in given musical examples - Identify the non-harmonic tone or concept represented in given musical examples - Choose the missing chords (roman numeral) in given harmonic progressions
20th-century Techniques This part of the test covers modern modes and scale systems, modern harmonic simultaneities/cluster "chord" types, and modern rhythmic terms and concepts, through multiple-choice questions of the following types:
- Match terms to definitions - Identify the techniques represented in given musical examples
Basic Forms: Multiple choice (5 questions): In a musical score of a short Romantic-era piano piece, - Identify the basic form of the piece (binary, rounded binary, waltz, simple ternary, compound ternary) - Identify types of internal phrase units (period, phrase group, phrase chain, repeated phrase, etc.) - Identify specific harmonic structures (Italian 6, German 6, Neapolitan, dominant 7, secondary dominant) - Determine the key of a modulation in relation to the main key of the piece (dominant, relative major, subdominant, subdominant of the relative major, etc.)
18th-century Fugue: Multiple choice (8 questions): In a musical score of a Bach fugue, you must identify - subject - countersubject - answer ("tonal" or "real," and its harmonic relationship to the main key of the work) - fugal exposition - episode - invertible counterpoint - inversion, augmentation, diminution of the subject - stretto - double fugue
Sonata Form: Multiple choice (7 questions): In a musical score of a Classic sonata-form movement - Label exposition, development, recapitulation, transition, retransition, coda - Identify specific harmonic structures and their function in the score (tonic, subdominant, dominant, submediant, relative major, parallel minor, Neapolitan, chromatic, borrowed, secondary leading-tone