killexams.com supply most exact and updated ISTQB-Advanced-Level-3 practice exam with actual ISTQB-Advanced-Level-3 exam Dumps for new syllabus of ISTQB-Advanced-Level-3 ISTQB-Advanced-Level-3 Exam. Practice our ISTQB-Advanced-Level-3 Real Dumps to Strengthen your knowledge and pass your ISTQB-Advanced-Level-3 exam with High Marks. We 100% guarantee your success in ISTQB-Advanced-Level-3 exam. Do not waste your more time on internet, just get our ISTQB-Advanced-Level-3 dumps and start study.
ASTQB
ISTQB-Advanced-Level-3
ISTQB Advanced LevelTechnical Test
https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/ISTQB-Advanced-Level-3
ISTQB-Advanced-Lev3 Question: 52
Select the correct answer;
I. Verifying "what" the product does is part of functional testing.
II. Usability Testing is a domain/functional testing technique.
III. Inspection, evaluation and reviews are usability test techniques.
IV. Understandability, learnability and attractiveness are attributes of usability
A. I, II, III true, IV false
B. II, III, IV true. I false
C. I, II true. III, IV false
D. All of the above true Answer: D Question: 53
According to the ISTQB syllabus, domain testing quality attributes are;
I. Accuracy, Suitability, Interoperability
II. Reliability, Maintainability, Portability
III. Performance, load, Adaptability
A. All of the above
B. None of the above
C. I and II true. III false
D. I true. II, III false Answer: D Question: 54
Select the correct statement(s). According to the ISTQB Syllabus;
I. Unauthorized access & copying, buffer overflow, logic bombs are part of Technical Security
Testing.
II. Fallback, backup and restore activities are part of recoverability testing.
III. Verifying whether a system can handle peak loads at or above maximum capacity is called
stress testing.
IV. Verifying whether a system can "meet future efficiency requirements" is called scalability
testing
26
ISTQB-Advanced-Lev3
A. I, II and III true. IV false
B. I, IV true. II, III false
C. II, III true. I, IV false
D. All of the above are true Answer: D Question: 55
A Software Test Analyst at ABC company. received a new software release and the installation
guide from Development. He followed the installation guide and successfully installed the
software. Then he followed the fallback instructions and performed a successful fallback. After
verifying that the software has completely fallen back as desired, he re-installed the software.
What type of testing activity did he do?
A. Portability testing
B. Efficiency testing
C. Reliability testing
D. Usability Testing Answer: A Question: 56
Which of the following statements are correct?
I. IEEE 1028 is an international standard on reviews.
II. Early reviews are very cost effective in finding defects.
III. Review is considered a static testing
IV. Most documents can be reviewed (source code, requirements document, test plan
document)
A. I, II and III true
B. I, III and IV true
C. I, II, III and IV true
D. II, III and IV true Answer: C Question: 57
You are a test analyst for XYZ Company. CEO of XYZ sent a meeting entry to you and your
27
manager for a past project evidence and test deliverables review. A person from an external
ISTQB-Advanced-Lev3
company would like to interview you regarding the previous project. This activity has a very
high visibility from upper management. What type of review is described above?
A. Management Review
B. Technical Review
C. Audit
D. Inspection Answer: C Question: 58
What type of a review meeting is described below?
"You were invited to attend a meeting next week. Meeting moderator included set of metrics
and a document to be reviewed along with the meeting agenda. One of the meeting agendas is
to find defects in the document sent. You and the other attendees were asked to review the
document prior to the meeting".
A. Informal Review
B. Inspection
C. Walkthrough
D. None of the above Answer: B Question: 59
Select the matching pair;
I. Contractual Review
II. Requirement Review
III. Design Review
a. Involve Managers, customers and technical staff. Review contract milestones.
b. Involve customers and technical staff. Review design solutions, test cases.
c. Involve auditor. Review compliance to processes and regulations.
d. Involve customers and technical staff. Reviewing functional and non functional
requirements, test conditions.
A. I-a,II-d,III-b
B. I-c,II-b,III-a
C. I-a,II-b,III-c
D. I-b,II-c,III-d 28
ISTQB-Advanced-Lev3 Answer: A Question: 60
Select the correct pair;
I. "Unexpected occurrence that requires a further investigation"
II. "Recognition of failure caused by a defect"
III. Requires a change to the work item
a) Incident
b) Defect
c) Bug
d) Failure
A. I-a,II-a,III-b
B. I-a,II-d,III-b
C. I-b,II-c,III-d
D. I-c,II-d,III-b Answer: A Question: 61
Which of the following statements are correct?
I. A failure can be detected only by dynamic testing technique.
II. Defects can exist in test environment.
III. All incidents require a software change.
IV. Code and design reviews can reveal defects
A. I, II, III true
B. I, II, IV true
C. II, III, IV true
D. II, IV true Answer: B Question: 62
IEEE 10440-1993 specifies a standard for defect reporting. Which of the following attributes
should be in a defect report as per ISTQB Syllabus?
29
ISTQB-Advanced-Lev3
A. Complete, concise, accurate and objective report.
B. Compete and accurate. Does not have to be concise or objective.
C. Complete and objective. Does not have to be accurate.
D. Accurate. Does not have to be complete, concise or objective. Answer: A Question: 63
A Junior software tester at ABC Inc. found a defect while testing release 2 of the eForm
application. The eForm application does not accept more than 5 characters for its' "Last Name"
field. Tester created a defect report. The defect report contains following information;
"eForm application does not accept more than 5 characters for its' "Last Name" field" Select
the correct statement regarding the defect report;
A. Defect report is complete, accurate and concise.
B. Defect report is accurate but not complete.
C. Defect report is complete but not accurate.
D. Defect report is complete but not concise. Answer: A Question: 64
A major bank has recently outsourced all of its software development in an effort to reduce its
fixed costs. The new supplier will be responsible for all new developments as well as
enhancements to existing ones. The bank has retained its own management team for its
projects. There will be an in-house project manager, development manager and test manager
for each project. Some staff may work on more than one project, depending on the overall size.
An enhancement is being made to allow existing customers to authorise their own loans online,
from 1k to 10k by answering a series of questions. You are a test manager with the bank and
you have written a test strategy for the outsourced team to follow. Unit testing has begun but
informal conversations with the developers have revealed that they have not received a signed-
off specification from the bank for the enhancement. They do know how loans work though
and have created code from conversations with bank staff alongside their own knowledge.
How could a strategy have helped to avoid this situation?
A. The test strategy would have identified bank staff with the right knowledge for consultation
on the loan requirements.
B. The test strategy would have laid out the process for capturing how the loan process would
work which the outsourced team would have followed.
C. The test strategy would have specified that a signed-off specification would be made
30
available to the coding team prior to the start of development.
ISTQB-Advanced-Lev3
D. The test strategy would have requested that the outsourced team take part in specifying the
requirements, to make use of their knowledge. Answer: C
Explanation:
Option A is about requirements capture, not testing. It may appear in a test plan, which may
show how reviews of specifications may be carried out, but would not appear in the test
strategy (it will say that reviews will be carried out, but would not name specific individuals).
Answer B is again about requirements capture, it would not appear in the test strategy. Question: 65
The aircrew of a national air defence force has requested changes to the existing aviation
software that provides on-board information about the combat environment. The air force is
currently engaged in a peace-keeping mission in another country and has come under
unexpected threats. The development life cycle is the V model. The software house needs to
change their test management process to ensure delivery at the right time and quality. The
software changes are coming in as the aircrew request them, as a result of their engagements
with hostile forces. The aircrew have requested that the changes are made as quickly as
possible. The project manager has decided to revisit the test management process. The changes
will come as small change requests. The team have worked on the project for over 25 years,
with little staff turnover. Which of the following test measures should be emphasised during
the crisis?
I. Readiness of the test environment for each run.
II. Number of high-priority defects being found.
III. Number of defects being found per tester.
IV. Number of hours overtime being worked by staff.
V. Number of change requests tested versus number passed.
A. I, II and V
B. II, III and IV
C. II, III and V
D. I, II and III Answer: A
Explanation:
Option I, readiness of the test environment, while it may be a given, should always be
monitored.
Option II, number of high-priority defects found is a good indicator of product quality and
should be included.
31
ISTQB-Advanced-Lev3
Option III, number of defects found per tester may be useful, but it would need to be
combined with other data, such as requirements tested to be of any real value.
Option IV, number of overtime hours worked by testers is unlikely to be of much concern
here.
Option V, number of change requests passing should be monitored. Question: 66
Which of the following is NOT a true statement?
A. Cost benefit analysis should be done before purchasing test tools and analysis should show
a good potential return on investment.
B. Bid bang approach is the best way to rollout test tools to an organization.
C. Maintenance fees, support fees, licensing fees and learning curve should be considered
before introducing test tools to an organization.
D. Scripted / automated tests can be executed faster during test execution phase. Answer: B Question: 67
Which of the following statements are true about risks of introducing test automation tools?
I. Poorly designed test cases automated "as is" results in execution errors.
II. Reduce defect detection due to limited manual testing by a tester.
III. Too many dependencies to integrate test tools and test tool limitations.
IV. Unrealistic expectations from management.
A. I, III true
B. II, IV true
C. All of them are true
D. None of them are true Answer: C Question: 68
Which of the following statements are true?
I. Test automation tools can be used only for one project.
II. Test data comparison tool can be used to avoid human data comparison mistakes.
III. A company can utilize multiple test tools to efficiently perform their test activities.
IV. Purchasing suite of test tools from the same vendor guarantees that the tools will work
together. 32
ISTQB-Advanced-Lev3
A. II, III true. I, IV false
B. I, II true. III, IV false
C. II, III, IV true. I false
D. I, II, IV true. III false Answer: A Question: 69
Select the correct pair from the following Test Tool Categories?
Test Tools Category:
I. Test Management Tool
II. Web Tools
III. Keyword-Driven Test Automation Tools Features of Test Tools Categories:
a. Supports organization of test artifacts
b. Less likely to modify
c. Help to monitor SLA (service Level Agreements) compliance
A. I-a,II-c,III-b
B. I-b,II-a,III-c
C. I-b,II-c,III-a
D. I-c,II-b,III-a Answer: A Question: 70
What is NOT an objective of using a Test Execution Tool?
A. Reduce effort or time related costs
B. Run more tests
C. Repeat tests easily
D. Automate all new features that are going to be delivered in next release. Answer: D Question: 71
33
ISTQB-Advanced-Lev3
XYZ Company develops websites for individual users / companies. The testing team tests each
build of the software once development releases it. Once testers complete the testing, they also
work on coding the next build of the software. All testers and developers report to project
manager. What type of independency is achieved above as per ISTQB syllabus?
A. "No independent testers"
B. Testing is done by a tester who is part of the development team
C. "External Test certified perform testing"
D. "Testing is done by an organization external to the company" Answer: B Question: 72
Which of the following is NOT a challenge with outsourcing?
A. Cultural differences
B. Quality
C. Employee turnover
D. Low cost Answer: D
34
For More exams visit https://killexams.com/vendors-exam-list
Kill your exam at First Attempt....Guaranteed!
The main assessment focus of the Drama section is:
Assessment Objective 1 (AO1)
Assessment Objective 2 (AO2)
Whichever play you are studying for GCSE English Literature, you will be expected to show the examiner that you can:
read and understand the play (AO1)
respond to the play with imagination and analysis (AO1)
select relevant examples and/or quotations from the play and evaluate them (AO1)
use these details to illustrate your opinions and interpretations (AO1)
explain and evaluate how the dramatist uses dramatic devices, language, structure and form to present ideas, themes, characters and settings (AO2)
This is an open book exam which means you will have an unannotated copy of the play in the exam with you.
Examiners will therefore have high expectations of the use of well-selected, relevant and succinct
quotations to support whatever point you are putting forward about a theme or character.
You will get a choice of two questions on the play that you have studied. In both questions you will be given a statement about an aspect of the play and you will be asked to show ‘how far you agree with’ it.
One question will ask you to discuss a specific extract as part of your essay and then look at the wider play as your essay develops. The other question will ask for a discussion of the whole play.
Read both questions carefully, looking at the key terms used in the questions so that you know exactly what you are being asked.
Choose whichever question you feel most confident about and which will allow you to show off all your knowledge about the play and the playwright’s use of dramatic devices.
Always remember that your essay should present your opinion on the subject clearly, throughout your answer you should develop your argument on why you think this.
You must support your argument using quotations and examples from the play and you should be using the literary terms you learnt in class to show you are aware of the writer’s methods.
Look at examples of points in the sections on characters and themes to see how you should integrate all of these aspects into paragraphs.
Wed, 30 Nov 2022 23:46:00 -0600en-GBtext/htmlhttps://www.bbc.co.uk/bitesize/guides/z2q24qt/revision/1Prepare for the CAP Exam
ISA offers a variety of resources to help you prepare for the Certified Automation Professional (CAP®) exam.
The CAP Study Guide is a comprehensive self-study resource that contains a list of the CAP domains and tasks, 75 review Dumps complete with justifications. References that were used for each study guide question are also provided with the question. The Study Guide also includes a recommended list of publications that you can use to do further study on specific domains. Order the CAP Study Guide.
Review Courses
A CAP review course is available in several formats as preparation for taking the certification exam. This course is offered by ISA and can also be offered at your location.
ISA also has a variety of training courses that would be helpful in preparing for CAP. Visit the Automation Professional Training page for a complete list.
Additional Resources
Exam Topics
Basic Continuous Control: Process Instrumentation, Analytical Instrumentation, Continuous Control, Control Valves, Analog Communications, Control System Documentation, Control Equipment
Basic Discrete, Sequencing, and Manufacturing Control: Discrete Input & Output Devices and General Manufacturing Measurements, Discrete and Sequencing Control, Motor and Drive Control, Motion Control
Advanced Control Topics: Process Modeling, Advanced Process Control, Control of Batch Processes, Environmental, Environmental Monitoring, Building Automation
Reliability, Safety, and Electrical: Alarm Management, Reliability, Process Safety and Safety Instrumented Systems, Electrical Installations, Safe Use and Application of Electrical Apparatus
Integration and Software: Digital Communications, Industrial Networks, Manufacturing Execution Systems and Business Integration, System and Network Security, Operator Interface, Data Management, Software, Custom Software
Deployment and Maintenance: Operator Training, Checkout, System Testing, and Startup, Troubleshooting, Maintenance, Long-Term Support and System Management
Work Structure: Automation Benefits and Project Justifications, Project Management and Execution, Interpersonal Skills
CAP sample Questions
Questions on the exam were derived from the actual practice of automation professionals as outlined in the CAP Role Delineation Study and job task analysis. Using interviews, surveys, observation, and group discussions, ISA worked with automation professionals to delineate critical job components to develop exam specifications to determine the number of questions related to each domain and task tested. This rigorous program development and ongoing maintenance process ensures that CAP certification accurately reflects the skills and knowledge needed to excel as an automation professional.
The following six questions were taken from the CAP exam question item bank and serve as examples of the question type and question content found on the CAP exam.
The method by which the tasks and hazards associated with a machine or process are analyzed is known as:
A. Risk assessment.
B. Machine assessment.
C. Risk reduction.
D. Risk abatement.
To test controller tuning or prototype new control strategies offline, the model should be a(an):
A. Tie-back (loopback) simulation.
B. Artificial neural network.
C. Dynamic process simulation.
D. Steady state process simulation.
The temperature measurement with the BEST repeatability and resolution is the:
A. Thermocouple.
B. Resistance temperature detector (RTD).
C. Dial thermometer.
D. Capillary system.
Which of the following is NOT a variable speed drive setup parameter?
A. Acceleration rate.
B. Motor winding type.
C. Output frequency.
D. Maximum speed.
A complete test plan for system integration testing MUST include:
A. Comments for the application programmer.
B. Multiple test cases for each mode of operation.
C. At least five test cases for each test.
D. Expected results for each test case.
Frequency of maintenance should be determined by:
A. Failure rates of components.
B. Availability of personnel and parts.
C. Management targets for efficiency and productivity.
The following questions are representative of the types of questions you will find on the CRCM (Certified Regulatory Compliance Manager) exam.
1. A borrower has a right to rescind a loan agreement in all of the following situations except:
a. A line of credit used for the borrower's business, secured by the borrower's primary dwelling b. A revolving line of credit secured by the borrower's primary dwelling used to Strengthen the borrower's home c. An increase of a line of credit from $5,000 to $10,000 secured by the borrower's primary dwelling d. A loan to pay off a contract for a deed secured by the borrower's primary dwelling
2. When opening a deposit account online, Regulation E disclosures MUST be provided at the time of account opening or:
a. Before the first EFT occurs b. Along with the first periodic statement c. Within three business days of account opening d. Within three business days of a customer's request for the EFT service
3. The primary responsibility for overseeing a bank’s inherent compliance risk should lie with which of the following?
a. Internal audit b. Consumers c. Board of Directors d. Compliance officer
4. A branch manager finds an unexplained $7,000 cash shortage in Teller #1's cash drawer. Which of the following actions must the bank take?
a. File a Currency Transaction Report (CTR) with the IRS b. Discharge Teller #1 immediately c. Send a notice of adverse action to the bank's federal regulator d. File a Suspicious Activity Report (SAR)
5. A compliance professional recently discovered the bank did not file and disclose an accurate covered agreement, as required by the CRA Sunshine Act. In order to ensure correct reporting in the future, what must be provided?
a. All individual mortgage loans b. Grants or loans to fulfill CRA activity c. Non-public or confidential information that will be provided in the public file d. A copy of the agreement to the regulatory agency 24 months after the end of the term
Answer Key
1. a 2. a 3. c 4. d 5. b
Looking to prepare for the exam? ABA offers CRCM exam Online Prep.
Fri, 20 Sep 2019 21:57:00 -0500entext/htmlhttps://www.aba.com/training-events/certifications/certified-regulatory-compliance-manager/prepare-for-the-exam/sample-crcm-exam-questionsQuestions for the Final FFICM Structured Oral Examination
To save content items to your Kindle, first ensure coreplatform@cambridge.org is added to your Approved Personal Document E-mail List under your Personal Document Settings on the Manage Your Content and Devices page of your Amazon account. Then enter the ‘name’ part of your Kindle email address below. Find out more about saving to your Kindle.
Note you can select to save to either the @free.kindle.com or @kindle.com variations. ‘@free.kindle.com’ emails are free but can only be saved to your device when it is connected to wi-fi. ‘@kindle.com’ emails can be delivered even when you are not connected to wi-fi, but note that service fees apply.
Multiple choice questions are perhaps the easiest to complete - you simply put a cross in a box - however, the questions often have two answers that could, at first glance, be correct. Don't make the mistake of studying the first answer and thinking this is correct without checking all the others.
If it says 'Tick one box', you must tick one box. If you leave it blank or tick two or more boxes you will get zero marks. These multiple choice questions will not start with command words like 'Describe...' or 'Explain...'. They will be written in the form of a question like 'What...?' or 'Why...?'.
There will be more multiple choice questions on the Foundation paper.
These questions have been written by Bitesize consultants as suggestions to the types of questions that may appear in an exam paper.
Sun, 28 May 2023 09:28:00 -0500en-GBtext/htmlhttps://www.bbc.co.uk/bitesize/guides/zgwf4qt/revision/1Exam Information
An exam proctor will begin studying exam instructions approximately 15 minutes before the exam start time. Students must be in the exam room with their exam at this time. If taking the exam on a laptop, it must be booted up and have passed the security check. Hand writers must not have a laptop with them in an exam room, unless otherwise allowed according to the professor’s instructions. A student entering the exam room after the proctor begins studying instructions will not receive additional time for booting up their laptop, passing the security check, and/or studying exam instructions.
When instructed by the proctor, write your exam number on the cover page of your exam, bluebooks, and any scratch paper you turn in as part of your exam. Handwritten exam answers must be written in blue books in blue or black ink. Number the bluebooks you use (1 of 1, 1 of 2, 2 of 2, etc.). Proctors will allow time to read the professor’s instructions. Other than counting the number of pages of the exam, students are not permitted to turn the page of an exam past the instructions page until the proctor instructs them to do so.
When taking a closed-book exam, no books, outlines, book bags, purses, or scratch paper (other than the scratch paper provided) may be at your seat during the exam. These items must be left outside of the exam room or in the front or sides of the exam room. Students may not begin to write anything, including on scratch paper, before the proctor begins a closed-book exam.
Students taking in-class exams are prohibited from having any electronic communication device, other than a laptop as allowed per the professor's instructions, during the exam. Cell phones and smart watches must be turned off during the exam and placed in a bag or backpack. Violations of this rule may be considered an Honor Code violation. A clock in each exam room will be the official timekeeper for the exam.
Non-alcoholic beverages are permitted in exam rooms; however, the container must have a lid.
After the exam instructions have been read and the exam begins, the proctor will remain in the room. Any student who has a question or problem during an exam should see the proctor.
Students may use the restroom or take a break during an exam. However, all exam materials must be left in the exam room and no additional time will be given. Students must sign in and out at the front of the room with the proctor.
Sat, 06 May 2023 19:42:00 -0500entext/htmlhttps://www.slu.edu/law/academics/registrar/exam-information/index.phpPrepare for the CCST Exam
The correct answer is D, A/D converter. A digital controller requires a digital signal as its input. A 4-20 mA transmitter outputs an analog signal. Therefore, a device to convert an analog (A) signal to a digital (D) is required. This class of device is referred to as an A/D converter.
An I/P transducer is used to convert an analog current (I) signal to a pneumatic (P) signal, as for actuation of final control elements. A P/I transducer is used to convert a pneumatic signal (P) to an analog current (I) signal, as for a pneumatic transmitter in a programmable logic controller loop. A DP transmitter is a differential pressure transmitter, which can output a pneumatic, an analog, or a digital signal, depending on the model of transmitter used.
Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.
The correct answer is C, "sample conditioning system." Answers A and C are items not generally associated with extractive field analyzers. Capillary tubes are used for collecting small samples (water, for instance) from a larger container. There are special capillary tubes that can be used in the analyzer chamber of a gas chromatograph, but they are not constructed from glass. Smooth-walled pipe is important for reducing friction losses in piping systems.
A sample probe calibration system is important to the overall function and maintenance of an extractive field analyzer. However, these systems are not used to prepare the sample for analysis, but rather to provide a mechanism to verify and maintain analyzer performance.
A sample conditioning system can contain devices, such as filters, demisters, flow regulators, and heaters. sample conditioning systems are used to bring the sample to the ideal process conditions for accurate measurement in the analyzer itself. The sample conditioning system can be a key maintenance item in an analyzer system, since each device needs to be calibrated, cleaned, etc.
Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.
The correct answer is B, "equal to." In order for air to be discharged from the end of a bubbler purge tube, the air pressure in the tube must be equal to (or higher than) the pressure exerted by the liquid head in the tank.
As the tank level is decreased, the liquid head pressure at the tip of the purge tube decreases, and more bubbles per unit of time can escape. The corresponding reduction in pressure in the purge tube is proportional to the level in the tank. Therefore, the point at which the liquid head pressure and the purge tube pressure are equal is the highest level (URV = 100%) that the device will measure.
Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.
The correct answer is A, "51 K ohms ± 5%."
The four-color band coding is: Color Value Multiplier Black 0 1 Brown 1 10 Red 2 100 Orange 3 1000 Yellow 4 10 K Green 5 100K Blue 6 1 M Violet 7 10 M Gray 8 White 9 Gold ± 5% 0.1 Silver ± 10% 0.01
So a resistor with four bands, green-brown-orange-gold, has a value of: 5 1 x 1000 ± 5% or 51 KΩ.
Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.
The correct answer is D, series and energized. To measure current, you must connect the two leads of the ammeter in the circuit so that the current flows through the ammeter. In other words, the ammeter must become a part of the circuit itself. The only way to measure the current flowing through a simple circuit is to insert your ammeter into the circuit (in series) with the circuit energized.
Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.
The correct answer is A; it prevents the formation of a second temperature measurement junction.
A thermocouple measurement junction is formed wherever two dissimilar metals are joined. KX-type thermocouple extension wire is made of the same metals as the K-type thermocouple (chromel and alumel). When extending the thermocouple leads with an extension wire back to the control system input card, KX thermocouple extension wire must be used, and the chromel wire and the alumel wire must be joined to the wire of the same metal in the extension cable. If JX or another type of extension wire is used, another measurement junction is formed. For instance, if JX extension cable is used in the example in this problem, the point where the iron and chromel wires are joined would form another thermocouple. This will negatively affect the intended measurement signal. Proper installation of thermocouple extension wires also requires special terminal blocks to prevent additional junctions from being formed.
Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.
The correct answer is B, "hydraulic actuation." Although many pneumatic actuators can provide a large force, they require either a large diaphragm area (in the case of a diaphragm actuator) or a large cylinder (in the case of a rack and pinion actuator).
Hydraulic actuators are driven by a high-pressure fluid (up to 4,000 psig) that can be delivered to the actuator by a pump that is remote from the actuator itself. Hydraulic cylinders can deliver up to 25 times more force than a pneumatic cylinder of the same size.
Manual actuation is accomplished by turning a valve handle, and is limited to the amount of force that an operator can exert on the lever or hand wheel.
Electric actuation delivers high torques for rotary-style valves, but electric actuators tend to be large and heavy compared to hydraulic actuators.
Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.
The correct answer is D; they measure pressure by sensing the deflection of the diaphragm. For most pressure applications, changes in pressure are detected by the change in deflection of a measuring diaphragm.
The deflection is converted into an electrical signal (voltage) by a piezoelectric or capacitance device. The small electrical current is converted to a standard signal (e.g., 4-20 mA or a digital signal) by a transmitter. Therefore, answer B is not correct.
Answer A is not correct, because pressure sensors can measure very small pressure changes (inches of water) and in some cases, millimeters of water.
Pressure measurement devices are not affected by volume, since they are measuring force over an area only. Many pressure sensors are sensitive to temperature (capillary tubes are filled with fluids that can expand with temperature). Therefore, answer C is not correct.
Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.
The correct answer is C, "Gather information about the problem." Once a problem is identified, data must be gathered and analyzed to determine a viable set of potential actions and solutions.
The logical analysis troubleshooting method consists of (in order): 1. Identify and define the problem. 2. Gather information about the problem. 3. Evaluate the information/data. 4. Propose a solution or develop a test. 5. Implement the solution or conduct the test. 6. Evaluate the results of the solution or test. 7. If the problem is not resolved, reiterate until the problem is found and resolved. 8. If the problem is resolved: document, store/file, and send to the appropriate department for follow up if required.
Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.
The correct answer is B, “location, elevation, and tag number.” Instrument location plans are most often used to support new plant installations and supply the installer information about the actual physical location of the installation of an instrument, the elevation of installation (at grade, on a platform, at what height on a process line, etc.), and the tag number of the instrument to be installed.
Specification numbers (part of answers C and D) are usually indicated on instrument lists and instrument installation details. Wiring plans (part of answer A) are typically shown on conduit and wiring schedules or cabling diagrams. Although these details are useful in the installation of a plant, they are not part of the instrument installation plans.
Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.
As if stealing the hearts of Tokyo’s most corrupt in Persona 5 Royal wasn’t a big enough task on its own, you’ll also have to contend with all the worries of a normal high schooler, and that includes your schoolwork. Throughout your year at Shujin Academy, you’ll be asked a number of questions both in-class and on exams, and the perks for doing well are numerous.
The questions you’ll get can be a little tough, though, but that’s where we come in. Below, you’ll find every classroom and exam question and answer for Persona 5 Royal. Good luck in school!
This answer guide is only for Persona 5 Royal. If you're playing vanilla P5, your answers will be different.
This guide contains slight spoilers for Persona 5 Royal.
April Classroom Answers
April Classroom Dumps In Persona 5 Royal
Date
Question
Correct Answer
4/12
Tell me what the Devil’s Dictionary defined as the chief factor in the progress of the human race.
Villains
4/19
Between A and B… which line seems longer…?
They’re the same.
4/23
Between music, theatre and chariot racing, which sport did Nero win when he participated in the Olympics?
All of them
4/25
What’s that phrase meant to convey? “My country, right or wrong?”
You unquestioningly support it
But the original meaning was different? So I guess it’d be something like…
You have a duty to correct them
4/27
Do you know the name of the theorem named after this number?
Four color theorem
4/30
First off, the "wunder" part probably means...
Wonder
Next, the "kind" part. That's probably...
Child
So a "wunderkind" would be...
Prodigy
May Classroom Answers
May Classroom Dumps In Persona 5 Royal
Date
Question
Correct Answer
5/7
So what’s the literal translation of the phrase “femme fatale?”
Fatal Woman
5/10
You know the time period Yoshitsune was active in, don’t you?
The Heian Period
Exam Period: 5/11-5/14
5/16
What do we call the phenomenon where believing in a treatment’s power is enough to Strengthen your condition?
The placebo effect
5/19
Which famous ukiyo-e artist of the Edo period is said to have moved residence over 100 times?
Katsushika Hokusai.
5/21
The golden ratio is 1:1.618, but do you know the silver ratio?
1:1.414
5/23
If we think about what these words have in common, then maybe “syn” means…
Together
And “aisthesis,” huh? That’s a little like the word aesthetics. I wonder if it means…
Senses
So that means the full word basically means…
Senses coming together
5/26
Do you know which author Leblanc borrowed from?
Arthur Conan Doyle
5/31
Do you know which peg-legged, parrot toting historical figure’s appearance became a visual shorthand for pirates?
John Silver
May exam Answers
May Midterm exam Dumps In Persona 5 Royal
Date
Question
Correct Answer
5/11
What historical figure inspired the term of “favoring the magistrate?"
Minamoto no Yoshitsune
Yoshitune had a brother, right? Oh, I think his name was…
Minamoto no Yoritomo
But they ended up coming into conflict. And in the end, when they had to oppose each other…
Yoritomo won
That’s probably because people tend to sympathize less with figures in power, and sympathize more with…
The weak
5/12
Which brain function is responsible for the phenomenon of seeing an illusion in this figure?
Cognition
Which of the following maps can you paint without any adjacent areas being the same color?
Both
5/13
Name the book that defined malefactors as the chief factor in the progress of the human race.
The Devil's Dictionary
What character archetype refers to a mysterious and seductive woman, typically with ulterior motives?
Can you tell me the meaning of the word “wack” in the Thieves’ Cant?
A share of stolen goods
11/4
Clubs is a club, diamonds is a gem… So, what does a spade represent?
A sword
11/8
Tell me how old you have to be to listen in on a trial.
Any age
11/10
Do you know why it’s missing in the character for “crow?"
Crow eyes are hard to see
11/12
I wonder. Do you know why our voices sound so different over the phone?
Because the voice is synthetic
11/14
Tell me why that is.
Because of high altitude
11/15
How was he punished?
His head was put on display.
11/17
Do you know the name for this graph? Your hint is “snails”...
Cochleoid
December exam Answers
December Final exam Dumps In Persona 5 Royal
Date
Question
Correct Answer
12/20
Choose the graph that became the origin for the name for the Chinese yoyo known as a diabolo.
D
He was a really famous thief from the Edo period, right? How much money did he steal, in the end?
Over one billion yen
As a result, he was sentenced to…
Having is head displayed
Criminals, especially famous criminals being paraded around, was mostly done for…
Public performance
12/21
Which suit of cards represents the Holy Grail?
Hearts
According to Japanese judicial law, what is possible for even an infant to do in court?
Attend
12/22
What country refers to a person who controls politics behind the scenes as a “prime minister in black?"
Japan
The Japanese word “dokyuu” translates to “massive.” What English word inspired the initial “do” in dokyuu?
Dreadnought
January Classroom Answers
January Classroom Dumps In Persona 5 Royal
Date
Question
Correct Answer
1/11
What’s this phrase supposed to illustrate about the gods of Shinto?
How numerous they are
What’s that phrase again? The one about how many gods there are in Shinto…
The Eight Million Gods
1/14
Where do you think the fictional land of “Ihatov” is modeled after?
Iwate
1/18
What did the word “awful” originally mean?
Impressive
1/21
Do you know what she’s stepping on?
A snake
1/24
What does that mean when describing a person?
Kind-hearted
So what kind of connotation would “salty” have in that context?
Negative
So with all that in mind, “salty” probably means…
Resentful
1/27
How far did this study suggest personal happiness can spread?
To friends of friends of friends
Rewards For Doing Well In School
Sometime throughout the year, if you're studying and following our guide to get all the questions in P5R right, you'll unlock the achievement or trophy, "A Most Studious Disguise" for placing first on an exam.
It requires not only a maxed Knowledge stat, but also getting all questions correctly on said exam.
Additionally, be sure to tell Sojiro Sakura that you've done well on your exams - he rewards you for doing well by offering Joker a handful of accessories.
Sojiro's Rewards For Joker's exam Scores
Month
Accessory Reward
Skill
May (Midterms)
Tough Belt
Defense Master
July (Finals)
Dandy Mirror
Counterstrike
October (Midterms)
Leblanc Charm
Null Sleep
December (Finals)
Boss Undies
Endure
Be sure to check in with your Coffee Dad after getting your scores to let him know how well you did! You need to manually talk to Sojiro to get the rewards, but it's worth doing so.
Sat, 22 Apr 2023 00:17:00 -0500en-UStext/htmlhttps://www.msn.com/en-us/lifestyle/lifestyle-buzz/every-classroom-and-exam-question-and-answer-for-persona-5-royal/ar-AA1abISbCan you answer the SATs test questions that left pupils 'in tears'? Take the controversial studying exam that has sparked fury among parents and promises of a probe by the ...
A SATs studying exam with tricky questions and language reportedly left Year 6 children 'in tears' last week
MailOnline has included the full paper with three dense texts and 38 questions for you to try at home
These are the tough SAT questions that left some pupils in tears.
Hundreds of parents and teachers claimed that last week's studying exam for Year 6 pupils - aged ten or 11 - was too difficult.
Schools said it was so tricky that staff also struggled to understand the questions.
And there were claims the English studying test booklet included 'GCSE-level' questions, with even high-ability pupils unable to finish the paper.
Based on three dense texts, the paper, published Thursday, has 38 questions and expects pupils to understand words like 'hotspot' and 'eradicated'.
Youngsters are also asked to find similar words to 'vulnerable' and 'unmistakable'.
The paper includes a passage from a look with a '13-18 studying age'.
File photo of primary school children raising their hands in class. The Mail has included questions from the Year 6 Sats studying test that left pupils 'in tears'
Schools minister Nick Gibb said he would look at the exam which has been accused of 'undermining' youngsters' confidence.
The Mail has selected some of the more difficult questions in the exam so you can try them for yourself.
But we have highlighted the relevant extract for each answer, whereas the pupils would have had to find it among hundreds of words of text.
The National Association of Head Teachers, which represents heads at the majority of primary schools said it planned to complain to Ofqual, the exams regulator.
Sarah Hannafin, from the union, said: 'Members have told us that the choice of texts was not accessible for the wide range of experiences and backgrounds children have and the difficulty was beyond previous tests, leaving children upset, and even staff struggling to understand the questions.'
But the Department for Education last night indicated that the exam was of 'similar difficulty to previous years'.
A blog post on its website read: 'It takes three years to create appropriate tests.
During the process, the texts and questions are also rigorously trialled twice, with a nationally representative sample of year 6 pupils.
In the second, technical trial, more than a thousand pupils see each question.
'Evidence from these processes indicated that the tests were of similar difficulty to previous years.
As a result, we are confident the test was set to an appropriate level of difficulty.'
Elsewhere, a leading schools boss said tough exam were 'absolutely right'.
Mouhssin Ismail, regional director and executive principal at STAR Academies wrote on Twitter: 'Surely, one of the solutions is to provide pupils with more mock exams which develop their exam resilience.
'Exams are meant to assess a full range of abilities, so being tough for some is absolutely right.'
You can see the full studying booklet, written questions and marking scheme below:
Thu, 18 May 2023 12:32:00 -0500text/htmlhttps://www.dailymail.co.uk/news/article-12100809/Can-answer-SATs-test-questions-left-pupils-tears.htmlWhat the GRE Test Is and How to PrepareNo result found, try new keyword!But one significant change coming in September is a shorter test that will be completed in 1 hour and 58 minutes. The analytical writing section will shrink to just one question – "Analyze an ...Mon, 15 May 2023 19:05:00 -0500text/htmlhttps://www.usnews.com/education/best-graduate-schools/articles/what-the-gre-test-is-and-how-to-prepare
