CSSLP test Questions - Certified Secure Software Lifecycle Professional Updated: 2023 | |||||||||||||||||||||
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Exam Code: CSSLP Certified Secure Software Lifecycle Professional test Questions June 2023 by Killexams.com team | |||||||||||||||||||||
CSSLP Certified Secure Software Lifecycle Professional Exam Title : ISC2 Certified Secure Software Lifecycle Professional (CSSLP) Exam ID : CSSLP Exam Duration : 240 mins Questions in test : 175 Passing Score : 700/1000 Exam Center : Pearson VUE Real Questions : ISC2 CSSLP Real Questions VCE VCE test : ISC2 CSSLP Certification VCE Practice Test The Official (ISC)² CSSLP training provides a comprehensive review of the knowledge required to incorporate security practices – authentication, authorization and auditing – into each phase of the Software Development Lifecycle (SDLC), from software design and implementation to testing and deployment. This training course will help students review and refresh their knowledge and identify areas they need to study for the CSSLP exam. Domain 1: Secure Software Concepts Domain 2: Secure Software Requirements Domain 3: Secure Software Design Domain 4: Secure Software Implementation/Programming Domain 5: Secure Software Testing Domain 6: Secure Lifecycle Management Domain 7: Software Deployment, Operations and Maintenance Domain 8: Supply Chain and Software Acquisition Identify the software methodologies needed to develop software that is secure and resilient to attacks. Incorporate security requirements in the development of software to produce software that is reliable, resilient and recoverable. Understand how to ensure that software security requirements are included in the design of the software, gain knowledge of secure design principles and processes, and gain exposure to different architectures and technologies for securing software. Understand the importance of programming concepts that can effectively protect software from vulnerabilities. Learners will touch on courses such as software coding vulnerabilities, defensive coding techniques and processes, code analysis and protection, and environmental security considerations that should be factored into software. Address issues pertaining to proper testing of software for security, including the overall strategies and plans. Learners will gain an understanding of the different types of functional and security testing that should be performed, the criteria for testing, concepts related to impact assessment and corrective actions, and the test data lifecycle. Understand the requirements for software acceptance, paying specific attention to compliance, quality, functionality and assurance. Participants will learn about pre- and post-release validation requirements as well as pre-deployment criteria. Understand the deployment, operations, maintenance and disposal of software from a secure perspective. This is achieved by identifying processes during installation and deployment, operations and maintenance, and disposal that can affect the ability of the software to remain reliable, resilient and recoverable in its prescribed manner. Understand how to perform effective assessments on an organizations cyber-supply chain, and describe how security applies to the supply chain and software acquisition process. Learners will understand the importance of supplier sourcing and being able to validate vendor integrity, from third-party vendors to complete outsourcing. Finally, learners will understand how to manage risk through the adoption of standards and best practices for proper development and testing across the entire lifecycle of products. | |||||||||||||||||||||
Certified Secure Software Lifecycle Professional ISC2 Professional test Questions | |||||||||||||||||||||
Other ISC2 examsCISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional - 2023CSSLP Certified Secure Software Lifecycle Professional ISSAP Information Systems Security Architecture Professional (ISSAP) ISSEP Information Systems Security Engineering Professional ISSMP Information Systems Security Management Professional SSCP Systems Security Certified Practioner CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional (CCSP) HCISPP HealthCare Information Security and Privacy Practitioner | |||||||||||||||||||||
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ISC2 CSSLP Certified Secure Software Lifecycle(R) Professional https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/CSSLP Answer option D is incorrect. Mutual authentication is a process in which a client process and server are required to prove their identities to each other before performing any application function. The client and server identities can be Tested through a trusted third party and use shared secrets as in the case of Kerberos v5. The MS- CHAP v2 and EAP-TLS authentication methods support mutual authentication. Answer option B is incorrect. Biometrics authentication uses physical characteristics, such as fingerprints, scars, retinal patterns, and other forms of biophysical qualities to identify a user. Question: 298 Which of the following roles is also known as the accreditor? A. Data owner B. Chief Risk Officer C. Chief Information Officer D. Designated Approving Authority Answer: D Explanation: Designated Approving Authority (DAA) is also known as the accreditor. Answer option A is incorrect. The data owner (information owner) is usually a member of management, in charge of a specific business unit, and is ultimately responsible for the protection and use of a specific subset of information. Answer option B is incorrect. A Chief Risk Officer (CRO) is also known as Chief Risk Management Officer (CRMO). The Chief Risk Officer or Chief Risk Management Officer of a corporation is the executive accountable for enabling the efficient and effective governance of significant risks, and related opportunities, to a business and its various segments. Risks are commonly categorized as strategic, reputational, operational, financial, or compliance- related. CRO's are accountable to the Executive Committee and The Board for enabling the business to balance risk and reward. In more complex organizations, they are generally responsible for coordinating the organization's Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) approach. Answer option C is incorrect. The Chief Information Officer (CIO), or Information Technology (IT) director, is a job title commonly given to the most senior executive in an enterprise responsible for the information technology and computer systems that support enterprise goals. The CIO plays the role of a leader and reports to the chief executive officer, chief operations officer, or chief financial officer. In military organizations, they report to the commanding officer. Question: 299 216 The Phase 2 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Verification. The goal of this phase is to obtain a fully integrated system for certification testing and accreditation. What are the process activities of this phase? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Registration B. System development C. Certification analysis D. Assessment of the Analysis Results E. Configuring refinement of the SSAA Answer: B,C,D,E Explanation: The Phase 2 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Verification. The goal of this phase is to obtain a fully integrated system for certification testing and accreditation. This phase takes place between the signing of the initial version of the SSAA and the formal accreditation of the system. This phase verifies security requirements during system development. The process activities of this phase are as follows: Configuring refinement of the SSAA System development Certification analysis Assessment of the Analysis Results Answer option A is incorrect. Registration is a Phase 1 activity. Question: 300 Which of the following methods determines the principle name of the current user and returns the java.security.Principal object in the HttpServletRequest interface? A. getCallerPrincipal() B. getRemoteUser() C. isUserInRole() D. getUserPrincipal() Answer: D Explanation: The getUserPrincipal() method determines the principle name of the current user and returns the java.security.Principal object. The java.security.Principal object contains the remote user name. The value of the getUserPrincipal() method returns null if no user is authenticated. 217 Answer option B is incorrect. The getRemoteUser() method returns the user name that is used for the client authentication. The value of the getRemoteUser() method returns null if no user is authenticated. Answer option C is incorrect. The isUserInRole() method determines whether the remote user is granted a specified user role. The value of the isUserInRole() method returns true if the remote user is granted the specified user role; otherwise it returns false. Answer option A is incorrect. The getCallerPrincipal() method is used to identify a caller using a java.security.Principal object. It is not used in the HttpServletRequest interface. Question: 301 Which of the following strategies is used to minimize the effects of a disruptive event on a company, and is created to prevent interruptions to normal business activity? A. Continuity of Operations Plan B. Disaster Recovery Plan C. Contingency Plan D. Business Continuity Plan Answer: D Explanation: BCP is a strategy to minimize the consequence of the instability and to allow for the continuation of business processes. The goal of BCP is to minimize the effects of a disruptive event on a company, and is formed to avoid interruptions to normal business activity. Business Continuity Planning (BCP) is the creation and validation of a practiced logistical plan for how an organization will recover and restore partially or completely interrupted critical (urgent) functions within a predetermined time after a disaster or extended disruption. The logistical plan is called a business continuity plan. Answer option C is incorrect. A contingency plan is a plan devised for a specific situation when things could go wrong. Contingency plans are often devised by governments or businesses who want to be prepared for anything that could happen. Contingency plans include specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular problem, emergency, or state of affairs. They also include a monitoring process and "triggers" for initiating planned actions. They are required to help governments, businesses, or individuals to recover from serious incidents in the minimum time with minimum cost and disruption. Answer option B is incorrect. Disaster recovery planning is a subset of a larger process known as business continuity planning and should include planning for resumption of applications, data, hardware, communications (such as networking), and other IT infrastructure. A business continuity plan (BCP) includes planning for non-IT related 218 aspects such as key personnel, facilities, crisis communication, and reputation protection, and should refer to the disaster recovery plan (DRP) for IT-related infrastructure recovery/continuity. Answer option A is incorrect. The Continuity Of Operation Plan (COOP) refers to the preparations and institutions maintained by the United States government, providing survival of federal government operations in the case of catastrophic events. It provides procedures and capabilities to sustain an organization's essential. COOP is the procedure documented to ensure persistent critical operations throughout any period where normal operations are unattainable. Question: 302 Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) represents an organization's loss from a single threat. Which of the following formulas best describes the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)? A. SLE = Asset Value (AV) * Exposure Factor (EF) B. SLE = Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) * Exposure Factor (EF) C. SLE = Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) * Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) D. SLE = Asset Value (AV) * Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) Answer: A Explanation: Single Loss Expectancy is a term related to Risk Management and Risk Assessment. It can be defined as the monetary value expected from the occurrence of a risk on an asset. It is mathematically expressed as follows: Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) = Asset Value (AV) * Exposure Factor (EF) where the Exposure Factor is represented in the impact of the risk over the asset, or percentage of asset lost. As an example, if the Asset Value is reduced two thirds, the exposure factor value is .66. If the asset is completely lost, the Exposure Factor is 1.0. The result is a monetary value in the same unit as the Single Loss Expectancy is expressed. Answer options B, D, and C are incorrect. These are not valid formulas of SLE. Question: 303 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. In order to do so, he performs the following steps of the pre-attack phase successfully: Information gathering Determination of network range Identification of active systems Location of open ports and applications Now, which of the following tasks should he perform next? A. Install a backdoor to log in remotely on the We-are-secure server. 219 B. Fingerprint the services running on the we-are-secure network. C. Map the network of We-are-secure Inc. D. Perform OS fingerprinting on the We-are-secure network. Answer: D Explanation: John will perform OS fingerprinting on the We-are-secure network. Fingerprinting is the easiest way to detect the Operating System (OS) of a remote system. OS detection is important because, after knowing the target system's OS, it becomes easier to hack into the system. The comparison of data packets that are sent by the target system is done by fingerprinting. The analysis of data packets gives the attacker a hint as to which operating system is being used by the remote system. There are two types of fingerprinting techniques as follows: 1.Active fingerprinting 2.Passive fingerprinting In active fingerprinting ICMP messages are sent to the target system and the response message of the target system shows which OS is being used by the remote system. In passive fingerprinting the number of hops reveals the OS of the remote system. Answer options B and C are incorrect. John should perform OS fingerprinting first, after which it will be easy to identify which services are running on the network since there are many services that run only on a specific operating system. After performing OS fingerprinting, John should perform networking mapping. Answer option A is incorrect. This is a pre-attack phase, and only after gathering all relevant knowledge of a network should John install a backdoor. Question: 304 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.A __________________ is defined as any activity that has an effect on defining, designing, building, or executing a task, requirement, or procedure. Answer: A technical effo Explanation: A technical effort is described as any activity, which has an effect on defining, designing, building, or implementing a task, requirement, or procedure. The technical effort is an element of technical management that is required to progress efficiently and effectively from a business need to the deployment and operation of the system. 220 For More exams visit https://killexams.com/vendors-exam-list Kill your test at First Attempt....Guaranteed! | |||||||||||||||||||||
ISA offers a variety of resources to help you prepare for the Certified Automation Professional (CAP®) exam. Primary TextbookA Guide to the Automation Body of Knowledge is the primary text resource for the CAP test and provides a complete overview of all technical topics. Order the Guide to the Automation Body of Knowledge. Study GuideThe CAP Study Guide is a comprehensive self-study resource that contains a list of the CAP domains and tasks, 75 review Braindumps complete with justifications. References that were used for each study guide question are also provided with the question. The Study Guide also includes a recommended list of publications that you can use to do further study on specific domains. Order the CAP Study Guide. Review CoursesA CAP review course is available in several formats as preparation for taking the certification exam. This course is offered by ISA and can also be offered at your location. ISA also has a variety of training courses that would be helpful in preparing for CAP. Visit the Automation Professional Training page for a complete list. Additional ResourcesExam Topics
CAP trial QuestionsQuestions on the test were derived from the genuine practice of automation professionals as outlined in the CAP Role Delineation Study and job task analysis. Using interviews, surveys, observation, and group discussions, ISA worked with automation professionals to delineate critical job components to develop test specifications to determine the number of questions related to each domain and task tested. This rigorous program development and ongoing maintenance process ensures that CAP certification accurately reflects the skills and knowledge needed to excel as an automation professional. The following six questions were taken from the CAP test question item bank and serve as examples of the question type and question content found on the CAP exam.
Sample Questions Answer Key
The following questions are representative of the types of questions you will find on the CRCM (Certified Regulatory Compliance Manager) exam. 1. A borrower has a right to rescind a loan agreement in all of the following situations except:a. A line of credit used for the borrower's business, secured by the borrower's primary dwelling 2. When opening a deposit account online, Regulation E disclosures MUST be provided at the time of account opening or:a. Before the first EFT occurs 3. The primary responsibility for overseeing a bank’s inherent compliance risk should lie with which of the following?a. Internal audit 4. A branch manager finds an unexplained $7,000 cash shortage in Teller #1's cash drawer. Which of the following actions must the bank take?a. File a Currency Transaction Report (CTR) with the IRS 5. A compliance professional recently discovered the bank did not file and disclose an accurate covered agreement, as required by the CRA Sunshine Act. In order to ensure correct reporting in the future, what must be provided?a. All individual mortgage loans Answer Key1. a Looking to prepare for the exam? ABA offers CRCM test Online Prep. View CourseImagine you approached someone you admired, and boldly asked that person to mentor you. And the answer was “Yes!” But a year into the relationship, those monthly mentoring sessions might not invigorate you like they used to, and aren’t quite as energizing for the mentor, either. 4 Types Of Questions To Ask A Mentor 1. Stories To break the ice, have your mentor tell a story from his or her own career. Hey, everybody likes to talk about themselves! For example, you could inquire: “How did you get to where you are today?” or “How did you land your current role?” But you could also ask more specific questions that address your career objectives and concerns. Some questions to consider: • Was there a time you messed up and felt like you’d failed? How did you bounce back? • How did you learn to embrace risk-taking? • Tell me about a latest business setback. How did you recover? • Think back to five years ago. Did you envision your career as it is today? • Was there ever a role you applied for and landed, but weren't 100% qualified to do? How did you proceed? • What do you wish you had known before taking your first management role? • Which leadership skills were the most difficult to develop? • Can you tell me about a time when you had a difficult boss? How did you handle the situation? • What’s the most important leadership lesson you’ve learned and how has it proven invaluable? • How did you develop the skill of speaking so engagingly in front of groups? 2. Situations Now that the conversation is flowing, get more granular in your requests and bring a specific situation to your mentor--one that you’d like help navigating. For example: • I tried to delegate a task last week and it did not go well. Can we work through what to do differently next time? • Who are the people I need to align with in this organization to achieve success? • My boss said I need to be more strategic. What does that mean? • How can I let my boss know that I don’t need to be micromanaged? • How can I stay connected to key influencers who do not work in same office or geographical area? • When trying to gain buy-in to implement a new program, what tactics have worked for you? • My performance review is coming up. What type of preparation do you most appreciate seeing from your employees? • I have two very different career path options available to me. Can you weigh in to help me make a final decision? • I'm considering a career transition. What are some other areas of the business that might be a good fit for me? • I’ve heard that taking a stretch assignment could help my career trajectory. What are the pros and cons? 3. Self-Awareness One of the greatest gifts you can provide yourself is the gift of self-awareness, meaning the ability to see yourself as others view you. That way, if you like how you’re perceived, you can embrace it and take steps to strengthen that positive perception. If you don’t like how you are currently perceived, you can take steps to shift that perception to a more positive one that supports, rather than undermines, your career and leadership goals. After starting with the obvious question: “How do you think others perceive me?” become more specific, so your mentor can assist by “holding up the mirror” and providing detailed feedback on how your actions and communication are impacting the way others see you. Ask questions such as: • How am I viewed? In other words, what's my personal brand in our organization? • Where do you see my strengths? • What do you see as some of my blind spots and how can I improve? • How I am viewed by leadership? • What do people say about me when I’m not in the room? • Could you offer feedback on ways to Strengthen my executive presence? • Do I come across as strategic or tactical in my day-to-day communication? • Am I viewed as high-maintenance when I send my boss weekly status updates? • How could I have communicated my idea more clearly? • When I presented at the last meeting, how did I do? Did my communication style support the message I intended to deliver? 4. Skill-Building Is there a skill you’re currently working to enhance, such as project management, long-term strategic planning, delegating, or public speaking? Use questions like these to ask your mentor for advice and resources to help you polish that skill: • How can I become a more assertive negotiator? • Can we role-play asking for a raise and a promotion? • How can I become better at managing people who do not report to me? • Do you have any quick tips for re-energizing an overworked team? • Can you recommend a book or resource for dealing with difficult conversations? • What practices can you recommend for dealing with nervousness when speaking to groups? • I have been asked to facilitate a team-building activity at a staff retreat. What are some keys to success? • What’s a good methodology or tool for project management and tracking team commitments? • Do you have a template that you use for long-range visioning and strategic planning? • What new skills do I need to move ahead? With these four types of questions and their accompanying examples, you’ll never sit through another mentoring conversation wondering if the other person is finding the discussion useful. And provide this list to those whom you mentor, encouraging them to use it to maximize the value of the time you spend together. Multiple choice questions are perhaps the easiest to complete - you simply put a cross in a box - however, the questions often have two answers that could, at first glance, be correct. Don't make the mistake of studying the first answer and thinking this is correct without checking all the others. If it says 'Tick one box', you must tick one box. If you leave it blank or tick two or more boxes you will get zero marks. These multiple choice questions will not start with command words like 'Describe...' or 'Explain...'. They will be written in the form of a question like 'What...?' or 'Why...?'. There will be more multiple choice questions on the Foundation paper. These questions have been written by Bitesize consultants as suggestions to the types of questions that may appear in an test paper. As a licensed Professional Engineer, or PE, you can expect many more benefits when compared to other engineers; most employers offer higher salaries and greater opportunities for advancement to PE's. Only PE's can consult in private practice, and seal company documents to be sent to the government. PEs also have more credibility as expert witnesses in court than most engineers. Steps in obtaining a PE license:
During your senior year you should take the Fundamentals of Engineering (FE) exam, which is required prior to sitting for the Professional Engineers (PE) Exam. Some requirements vary by state. 1. Each test paper will contain questions that require you to recall what you've learnt.You will need to remember, select and clearly communicate facts and explanations that you have learnt from studying. 2. Each test paper will contain questions that require you to apply what you’ve learnt to an unfamiliar context.These questions may, at first, appear to be about things you haven’t learnt. But the question will provide you all the information you need to answer it when combined with your own knowledge and understanding. When you see an unfamiliar situation in a question:
3. Each test paper will contain questions that require you to analyse evidence or data and then make your own decision or conclusionTo get full marks on this type of question, you will usually have to do more than just processing data (eg doing calculations or plotting a graph) or describing it (eg describing the pattern in the results or the shape of the graph) - you will have to come up with your own conclusion or decision based on the evidence you have been given. Sometimes, you may be asked whether you agree with a statement or a conclusion. You may not get any marks for simply stating that you agree or disagree - most or all of the marks will be given for explaining and justifying your decision. Your answer must make it clear that your decision is based on the evidence you have been given in the question and your own knowledge and understanding of chemistry. An test proctor will begin studying test instructions approximately 15 minutes before the test start time. Students must be in the test room with their test at this time. If taking the test on a laptop, it must be booted up and have passed the security check. Hand writers must not have a laptop with them in an test room, unless otherwise allowed according to the professor’s instructions. A student entering the test room after the proctor begins studying instructions will not receive additional time for booting up their laptop, passing the security check, and/or studying test instructions. When instructed by the proctor, write your test number on the cover page of your exam, bluebooks, and any scratch paper you turn in as part of your exam. Handwritten test answers must be written in blue books in blue or black ink. Number the bluebooks you use (1 of 1, 1 of 2, 2 of 2, etc.). Proctors will allow time to read the professor’s instructions. Other than counting the number of pages of the exam, students are not permitted to turn the page of an test past the instructions page until the proctor instructs them to do so. When taking a closed-book exam, no books, outlines, book bags, purses, or scratch paper (other than the scratch paper provided) may be at your seat during the exam. These items must be left outside of the test room or in the front or sides of the test room. Students may not begin to write anything, including on scratch paper, before the proctor begins a closed-book exam. Students taking in-class exams are prohibited from having any electronic communication device, other than a laptop as allowed per the professor's instructions, during the exam. Cell phones and smart watches must be turned off during the test and placed in a bag or backpack. Violations of this rule may be considered an Honor Code violation. A clock in each test room will be the official timekeeper for the exam. Non-alcoholic beverages are permitted in test rooms; however, the container must have a lid. After the test instructions have been read and the test begins, the proctor will remain in the room. Any student who has a question or problem during an test should see the proctor. Students may use the restroom or take a break during an exam. However, all test materials must be left in the test room and no additional time will be given. Students must sign in and out at the front of the room with the proctor. A typical examination question in Mathematics will have several parts to it. Some parts (most usually at the beginning of the question) test your knowledge, by asking you to reproduce "bookwork", i.e. material presented in the lectures. Really, these parts test how well you've revised. Occasionally, especially in certain more advanced courses, there are entire questions that are bookwork. In some courses, some pieces of bookwork come up in the test almost every year. In other courses, hardly any bookwork is set explicitly. Tip: Figure out which pieces of bookwork come up most frequently, and make sure you can answer those questions easily and quickly. You would be surprised how many poor attempts at routine bookwork questions we see every year. These are the parts of the questions that we expect students to be able to do. Other parts of examination questions involve a "problem". In a "Methods" course, this will typically involve you applying a known technique from the course, and again this is something we expect you to be able to do. In a Pure Mathematics course, you might be asked to prove a result, or to apply a result in a particular setting. Tip: Sometimes (but certainly not always!), the first part of the question is intended as a big hint as to how you should approach the second part. Many test questions, especially those that are otherwise very routine, have a last part (a "rider") which is more challenging than the rest of the question. This is quite deliberate, and the intention is to test whether you've really understood the material. Tip: Do try all the riders (they're not always so hard after all!) but don't waste too much time on them in an test if there are other things you can tackle instead. Students sometimes seem to be annoyed that they have to do something clever to get 100% on a question. Don't forget, in many other subjects it's practically impossible to score 100% on a question! Tip: Make sure you've answered all the parts of the question. Sometimes you're asked to do seven or eight things, and it's easy to overlook one. We scored companies based on these measurements: Price (50% of score): We averaged the no-exam life insurance rates for males and females in excellent health at ages 30, 40 and 50 for $500,000 and $1 million and a term length of 20 years. Maximum face amount for lowest eligible age (10% of score): Companies with higher no-exam life insurance coverage amounts for the lowest age earned more points. Note that maximum no-exam coverage can sometimes become lower if you apply at a higher age. Age eligible for best length/amount (10% of score): Companies offering no-exam life insurance to folks over age 50 earned extra points. Accelerated death benefit available (10% of score): This important feature lets you access part of your own death benefit in the event you develop a terminal illness Option to convert to a permanent life insurance policy (10% of score): This is a good option to have in place if you decide you want a longer policy, especially if your health has declined and you don’t want to shop for new life insurance. Guaranteed renewals (5% of score): This option lets you extend the coverage after your initial level term period has expired, such as at the end of 10, 20 or 30 years. Renewal rates can be significantly higher, but renewing can provide extended coverage to someone who may no longer qualify for a new life insurance policy because of health. Median time from application to approval (5% of score): We gave more points to companies with lower no-exam life insurance approval times. The timeline for approval could be within seconds or a month, depending on the company and possibly even your health. Sources: Bestow, Ethos, Fabric, Haven Life, Ladder, Policygenius and Forbes Advisor research. Looking For Life Insurance? Compare Policies With Leading Life Insurance Companies | |||||||||||||||||||||
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