Content area allocation Weight
I. Ethics, Professional Responsibilities and Federal Tax Procedures 10–20%
II. Business Law 10–20%
III. Federal Taxation of Property Transactions 12–22%
IV. Federal Taxation of Individuals 15–25%
V. Federal Taxation of Entities 28–38%
minutes — Welcome/enter launch code
5 minutes — Confidentiality/section information
4 hours — Testing time
15 minutes — Break after third testlet (option to pause test timer)
5 minutes — Survey
Each of the four test sections is broken down into five smaller sections called testlets. These testlets feature multiple-choice questions (MCQs) and task-based simulations (TBSs). In the case of BEC, you also have to complete three written communication tasks. The number of MCQs and TBSs tested varies depending upon the specific section taken. You will receive at least one research question (research-oriented TBS) in the AUD, FAR and REG sections. To complete them, you will have to search the related authoritative literature and find an appropriate reference.
The REG section blueprint is organized by content AREA, content GROUP
and content TOPIC. Each syllabu includes one or more representative TASKS
that a newly licensed CPA may be expected to complete when performing tax
preparation services, tax advisory services or other responsibilities of a CPA.
The tasks in the blueprint are representative. They are not intended to be (nor
should they be viewed as) an all-inclusive list of tasks that may be tested in the
REG section of the Exam. Additionally, it should be noted that the number of
tasks associated with a particular content group or syllabu is not indicative of the
extent such content group, syllabu or related skill level will be assessed on the
Exam. Similarly, examples provided within the task statements should not be
viewed as all-inclusive.
Area I Ethics, Professional Responsibilities and
Federal Tax Procedures 10–20%
Area II Business Law 10–20%
Area III Federal Taxation of Property Transactions 12–22%
Area IV Federal Taxation of Individuals 15-25%
Area V Federal Taxation of Entities 28-38%
Overview of content areas
Area I of the REG section blueprint covers several topics, including the following:
• Ethics and Responsibilities in Tax Practice – Requirements based on Treasury
Department Circular 230 and the rules and regulations for tax return preparers
• Licensing and Disciplinary Systems – Requirements of state boards of
accountancy to obtain and maintain the CPA license
• Federal Tax Procedures – Understanding federal tax processes and
procedures, including appropriate disclosures, substantiation, penalties and
authoritative hierarchy
• Legal Duties and Responsibilities – Understanding legal issues that affect
the CPA and his or her practice
Area II of the REG section blueprint covers several Topics of Business Law,
including the following:
• Knowledge and understanding of the legal implications of business
transactions, particularly as they relate to accounting, auditing and financial
reporting.
• Areas of agency, contracts, debtor-creditor relationships, government
regulation of business, and business structure.
- The Uniform Commercial Code under the Topics of contracts and
debtor-creditor relationships.
- Nontax-related business structure content. Area V of the REG section
blueprint covers the tax-related issues of the various business structures.
• Federal and widely adopted uniform state laws and references as identified
in References below.
Area III, Area IV and Area V of the REG section blueprint cover various topics
of federal income taxation and gift and estate tax. Accounting methods and
periods, and tax elections are included in the Areas listed below:
• Area III covers the federal income taxation of property transactions. Area III
also covers Topics related to federal estate and gift taxation.
• Area IV covers the federal income taxation of individuals from both a tax
preparation and tax planning perspective.
• Area V covers the federal income taxation of entities including sole
proprietorships, partnerships, limited liability companies, C corporations,
S corporations, joint ventures, trusts, estates and tax-exempt organizations,
from both a tax preparation and tax planning perspective.
Section assumptions
The REG section of the test includes multiple-choice questions,
task-based simulations and research prompts. Candidates should assume
that the information provided in each question is material and should apply
all stated assumptions. To the extent a question addresses a syllabu that could
have different tax treatments based on timing (e.g., alimony arrangements
or net operating losses), it will include a clear indication of the timing (e.g.,
use of real dates) so that the candidates can determine the appropriate
portions of the Internal Revenue Code or Treasury Regulations to apply to
Remembering and understanding is mainly concentrated in Area I and Area II.
These two areas contain the general ethics, professional responsibilities and
business law knowledge that is required for newly licensed CPAs and is tested
at the lower end of the skill level continuum.
• Application and analysis skills are primarily tested in Areas III, IV and V. These
three areas contain more of the day-to-day tasks that newly licensed CPAs are
expected to perform and therefore are tested at the higher end of the skill level
continuum.
The representative tasks combine both the applicable content knowledge and
the skills required in the context of the work that a newly licensed CPA would
reasonably be expected to perform. The REG section does not test any content at
the Evaluation skill level as newly licensed CPAs are not expected to demonstrate
that level of skill in regards to the REG content.
1. Regulations
governing
practice
before the Internal Revenue Service
Recall the regulations governing practice before the Internal Revenue Service.
Apply the regulations governing practice before the Internal Revenue Service given a specific scenario.
2. Internal Revenue
Code and
Regulations
related
to tax return
preparers
Recall who is a tax return preparer.
Recall situations that would result in federal tax return preparer penalties.
Apply potential federal tax return preparer penalties given a specific scenario.
B. Licensing and disciplinary systems
Understand and explain the role and authority of state boards of accountancy.
C. Federal tax procedures
1. Audits, appeals
and judicial
process
Explain the audit and appeals process as it relates to federal tax matters.
Explain the different levels of the judicial process as they relate to federal tax matters.
Identify options available to a taxpayer within the audit and appeals process given a specific
scenario.
Identify options available to a taxpayer within the judicial process given a specific scenario.
2. Substantiation
and disclosure
of tax positions
Summarize the requirements for the appropriate disclosure of a federal tax return
position.
Identify situations in which disclosure of federal tax return positions is required.
Identify whether substantiation is sufficient given a specific scenario.
3. Taxpayer penalties Recall situations that would result in taxpayer penalties relating to federal tax returns.
Calculate taxpayer penalties relating to federal tax returns.
4. Authoritative
hierarchy
Recall the appropriate hierarchy of authority for federal tax purposes.
D. Legal duties and responsibilities
1. Common law
duties and
liabilities to
clients and third
parties
Summarize the tax return preparers common law duties and liabilities to clients and
third parties.
Identify situations which result in violations of the tax return preparers common law duties
and liabilities to clients and third parties.
2. Privileged
communications,
confidentiality
and privacy acts
Summarize the rules regarding privileged communications as they relate to tax practice.
Identify situations in which communications regarding tax practice are considered
privileged.
1. Authority of agents
and principals Recall the types of agent authority.
Identify whether an agency relationship exists given a specific scenario.
2. Duties and
liabilities of agents
and principals
Explain the various duties and liabilities of agents and principals.
Identify the duty or liability of an agent or principal given a specific scenario.
B. Contracts
1. Formation Summarize the elements of contract formation between parties.
Identify whether a valid contract was formed given a specific scenario.
Identify different types of contracts (e.g., written, verbal, unilateral, express and implied)
given a specific scenario.
2. Performance Explain the rules related to the fulfillment of performance obligations necessary for an
executed contract.
Identify whether both parties to a contract have fulfilled their performance obligation given
a specific scenario.
3. Discharge, breach
and remedies
Explain the different ways in which a contract can be discharged (e.g., performance,
agreement and operation of the law).
Summarize the different remedies available to a party for breach of contract.
Identify situations involving breach of contract.
Identify whether a contract has been discharged given a specific scenario.
Identify the remedy available to a party for breach of contract given a specific scenario.
C. Debtor-creditor relationships
1. Rights, duties
and liabilities of
debtors,
creditors
and guarantors
Explain the rights, duties and liabilities of debtors, creditors and guarantors.
Identify rights, duties or liabilities of debtors, creditors or guarantors given a specific
scenario.
2. Bankruptcy and
insolvency
Explain the rights of the debtors and the creditors in bankruptcy and insolvency.
Summarize the rules related to the different types of bankruptcy.
Explain discharge of indebtedness in bankruptcy.
Identify the rights of the debtors and the creditors in bankruptcy and insolvency given a
specific scenario.
Identify the type of bankruptcy described in a specific scenario.
3. Secured
transactions
Explain how property can serve as collateral in secured transactions.
Summarize the priority rules of secured transactions.
Explain the requirements needed to create and perfect a security interest.
Identify the prioritized ordering of perfected security interests given a specific scenario.
Identify whether a creditor has created and perfected a security interest given a
specific scenario.
D. Government regulation of business
1. Federal securities
regulation
Summarize the various securities laws and regulations that affect corporate governance
with respect to the federal Securities Act of 1933 and federal Securities Exchange Act
of 1934.
Identify violations of the various securities laws and regulations that affect corporate
governance with respect to the federal Securities Act of 1933 and federal Securities
Exchange Act of 1934.
2. Other federal
laws and
regulations
(e.g., employment
tax, qualified health
plans and worker
classification)
Summarize federal laws and regulations, for example, employment tax, qualified health plans
and worker classification federal laws and regulations.
Identify violations of federal laws and regulations, for example, employment tax, qualified
health plans and worker classification federal laws and regulations.
1. Selection and
formation of
business entity
and related
operation
and termination
Summarize the processes for formation and termination of various business entities.
Summarize the non-tax operational features for various business entities.
Identify the type of business entity that is best described by a given set of
nontax-related characteristics.
2. Rights, duties,
legal obligations
and authority
of owners and
management
Summarize the rights, duties, legal obligations and authority of owners and management.
Identify the rights, duties, legal obligations or authorities of owners or management given a
specific scenario.
1. Basis and holding
period of assets
Calculate the tax basis of an asset.
Determine the holding period of a disposed asset for classification of tax gain or loss.
2. Taxable and
nontaxable
dispositions
Calculate the realized and recognized gain or loss on the disposition of assets for federal income
tax purposes.
Calculate the realized gain, recognized gain and deferred gain on like-kind property exchange
transactions for federal income tax purposes.
Analyze asset sale and exchange transactions to determine whether they are taxable or
nontaxable.
3. Amount and
character of gains
and losses, and
netting process
(including
installment sales)
Calculate the amount of capital gains and losses for federal income tax purposes.
Calculate the amount of ordinary income and loss for federal income tax purposes.
Calculate the amount of gain on an installment sale for federal income tax purposes.
Review asset transactions to determine the character (capital vs. ordinary) of the gain or
loss for federal income tax purposes.
Analyze an agreement of sale of an asset to determine whether it qualifies for installment
sale treatment for federal income tax purposes.
4. Related party
transactions
(including imputed
interest)
Recall related parties for federal income tax purposes.
Recall the impact of related party ownership percentages on acquisition and disposition
transactions of property for federal income tax purposes.
Calculate the direct and indirect ownership percentages of corporation stock or partnership
interests to determine whether there are related parties for federal income tax purposes.
Calculate a taxpayers basis in an asset that was disposed of at a loss to the taxpayer by a
related party.
Calculate a taxpayers gain or loss on a subsequent disposition of an asset to an unrelated
third party that was previously disposed of at a loss to the taxpayer by a related party.
Calculate the impact of imputed interest on related party transactions for federal
tax purposes.
B. Cost recovery (depreciation, depletion and amortization)
Calculate tax depreciation for tangible business property and tax amortization of intangible
assets.
Calculate depletion for federal income tax purposes.
Compare the tax benefits of the different expensing options for tax depreciation for federal
income tax purposes.
Reconcile the activity in the beginning and ending accumulated tax depreciation account.
1. Transfers subject
to gift tax Recall transfers of property subject to federal gift tax.
Recall whether federal Form 709 — United States Gift (and Generation-Skipping Transfer)
Tax Return is required to be filed.
Calculate the amount and classification of a gift for federal gift tax purposes.
Calculate the amount of a gift subject to federal gift tax.
2. Gift tax annual
exclusion and gift
tax deductions
Recall allowable gift tax deductions and exclusions for federal gift tax purposes.
Recall situations involving the gift tax annual exclusion, gift-splitting and the impact on
the use of the lifetime exclusion amount for federal gift tax purposes.
Compute the amount of taxable gifts for federal gift tax purposes.
3. Determination
of taxable estate
Recall assets includible in a decedents gross estate for federal estate tax purposes.
Recall allowable estate tax deductions for federal estate tax purposes.
Calculate the taxable estate for federal estate tax purposes.
Calculate the gross estate for federal estate tax purposes.
Calculate the allowable estate tax deductions for federal estate tax purposes
Calculate the amounts that should be included in, or excluded from, an individuals gross
income as reported on federal Form 1040 — U.S. Individual Income Tax Return.
Analyze projected income for use in tax planning in future years.
Analyze client-provided documentation to determine the appropriate amount of gross
income to be reported on federal Form 1040 — U.S. Individual Income Tax Return.
B. Reporting of items from pass-through entities
Prepare federal Form 1040 — U.S. Individual Income Tax Return based on the information
provided on Schedule K-1.
C. Adjustments and deductions to arrive at adjusted gross income and taxable income
Calculate the amount of adjustments and deductions to arrive at adjusted gross income
and taxable income on federal Form 1040 — U.S. Individual Income Tax Return.
Calculate the qualifying business income (QBI) deduction for federal income tax purposes.
Analyze client-provided documentation to determine the validity of the deductions
taken to arrive at adjusted gross income or taxable income on federal Form 1040 — U.S.
Individual Income Tax Return.
D. Passive activity losses (excluding foreign tax credit implications)
Recall passive activities for federal income tax purposes.
Calculate net passive activity gains and losses for federal income tax purposes.
Prepare a loss carryforward schedule for passive activities for federal income tax purposes.
Calculate utilization of suspended losses on the disposition of a passive activity for
federal income tax purposes.
Uniform CPA Examination Blueprints: Regulation (REG) REG16
Regulation (REG)
Area IV – Federal Taxation of Individuals
killexams.com includes latest and updated CPA-REG practice test with genuine CPA-REG test mock test for new syllabus. Practice our Real CPA-REG Questions and CPA-REG braindumps to Boost your insight and pass your test with High Marks. We ensure your achievement in the exam, covering every one of the points of exam. Pass4sure beyond any doubt with our exact questions.
CPP-Institute
CPA-REG
CPA Regulation
https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/CPA-REG Question: 63
Tom and Joan Moore, both CPAs, filed a joint 1994 federal income tax return showing
$70,000 in taxable income. During 1994, Toms daughter Laura, age 16, resided with
Tom. Laura had no income of her own and was Toms dependent. Determine the amount
of income or loss, if any that should be included on page one of the Moores 1994 Form
1040. Toms 1994 wages were $53,000. In addition, Toms employer provided group-
term life insurance on Toms life in excess of $50,000. The value of such excess
coverage was $2,000.
A. $0
B.$500
C. $900
D. $1,000
E. $1,250
F. $1,300
G. $1,500
1-1. $2,000
1. $2,500
J. $3,000
K. $10,000
L. $25,000
M. $50,000
N. $55,000
O. $75,000 Answer: A
Explanation:
"N" is correct. $55,000. The value of employer-provided group term life insurance for
which the face amount exceeds $50,000 is taxable income to the insured employee and
the $53,000 in wages would both be included on page one, Form 1040. Question: 64
Tom and Joan Moore, both CPAs, filed a joint 1994 federal income tax return showing
$70,000 in taxable income. During 1994, Toms daughter Laura, age 16, resided with
Tom. Laura had no income of her own and was Toms dependent. Determine the amount
of income or loss, if any that should be included on page one of the Moores 1994 Form
1040. During 1994, the Moores received a $2,500 federal tax refund and a $1,250 state
tax refund for 1993 overpayments. In 1993, the IV|oores were not subject to the
alternative minimum tax and were not entitled to any credit against income tax. The
Moores 1993 adjusted gross income was $80,000 and itemized deductions were $1,450
in excess of the standard deduction. The state tax deduction for 1993 was
$2,000.
A. $0
B.$500
C. $900
D. $1,000
E. $1,250
F. $1,300
G. $1,500
1-1. $2,000
I. $2,500
J. $3,000
K. $10,000
L. $25,000
M. $50,000
N. $55,000
O. $75,000 Answer: E
Explanation:
"E" is correct. $1,250. The Moores itemized deductions in 1993 because such deductions
were $1,450 in excess of the standard deduction. The amount of state taxes deducted in
1993 was $2,000, which (along with the fact that the Moores were not subject to
alternative minimum tax, which may have reduced their tax benefit) indicates that the
Moores received a tax benefit in 1993 from deducting the $1,250 state tax refund they
received in 1994. The $1,250 is taxable in 1994. Question: 65
Tom and Joan Moore, both CPAs, filed a joint 1994 federal income tax return showing
$70,000 in taxable income. During 1994, Toms daughter Laura, age 16, resided with
Tom. Laura had no income of her own and was Toms dependent. Determine the amount
of income or loss, if any that should be included on page one of the Moores 1994 Form
1040. In 1994, Joan received $1,300 in unemployment compensation benefits. Her
employer made a $100 contribution to the unemployment insurance fund on her behalf.
A. $0
B.$500
C. $900
D. $1,000
E. $1,250
F. $1,300
G. $1,500
H .$2,000
I. $2,500
J. $3,000
K. $10,000
L. $25,000
M. $50,000
N. $55,000
O. $75,000 Answer: F
Explanation:
"F" is correct. $1,300. Unemployment compensation benefits are fully taxable (when
received by the employee), but contributions made by the employer to the insurance
fund are not taxable. Question: 66
Tom and Joan Moore, both CPAs, filed a joint 1994 federal income tax return showing
$70,000 in taxable income. During 1994, Toms daughter Laura, age 16, resided with
Tom. Laura had no income of her own and was Toms dependent. Determine the amount
of income or loss, if any that should be included on page one of the Moores 1994 Form
1040. The Moores received $8,400 in gross receipts from their rental property during
1994. The expenses for the residential rental property were:
A. $0
B.$500
C. $900
D. $1,000
E. $1,250
F. $1,300
G. $1,500
H. $2,000
I. $2,500
J. $3,000
K. $10,000
L. $25,000
M. $50,000
N. $55,000
O. $75,000 Answer: I
Explanation:
"I" is correct. $2,500. Rental actMty net income is reported on page one; the gross
income ($8,400) is fully reportable; and all deductions listed (total = $5,900) are fully
deductible for a net of $2,500. Question: 67
Tom and Joan Moore, both CPAs, filed a joint 1994 federal income tax return showing
$70,000 in taxable income. During 1994, Toms daughter Laura, age 16, resided with
Tom. Laura had no income of her own and was Toms dependent. Determine the amount
of income or loss, if any that should be included on page one of the Moores 1994 Form
1040. The Moores received a stock dMdend in 1994 from Ace Corp. They had the
option to receive either cash or Ace stock with a fair market value of $900 as of the date
of distribution. The par value of the stock was
$500.
A. $0 B.$500
C. $900
o. $1,000
E. $1,250
F. $1,300
G. $1,500
H. $2,000
I. $2,500
J. $3,000
K. $10,000
L. $25,000
M. $50,000
N. $55,000
O. $75,000 Answer: C
Explanation:
"C" is correct. $900. If a taxpayer has the option of taking a dMdend either in stock or in
other property (e.g., cash), the dMdend is taxable regardless of the option the taxpayer
selects. Question: 68
Tom and Joan Moore, both CPAs, filed a joint 1994 federal income tax return showing
$70,000 in taxable income. During 1994, Toms daughter Laura, age 16, resided with
Tom. Laura had no income of her own and was Toms dependent. Determine the amount
of income or loss, if any that should be included on page one of the Moores 1994 Form
1040. In 1994, Joan received $3,500 as beneficiary of the death benefit, which was
provided by her brothers employer. Joans brother did not have a nonforfeitable right to
receive the money while lMng.
A. $0
B.$500
C. $900
D. $1,000
E. $1,250
F. $1,300
G. $1,500
H. $2,000
I. $2,500
J. $3,000
K. $10,000
L. $25,000
M. $50,000
N. $55,000
O. $75,000 Answer: A
Explanation:
"A" is correct. $0. Life insurance proceeds received by reason of the death of the insured
are not taxable income to the recipient. Question: 69
Tom and Joan Moore, both CPAs, filed a joint 1994 federal income tax return showing
$70,000 in taxable income. During 1994, Toms daughter Laura, age 16, resided with
Tom. Laura had no income of her own and was Toms dependent. Determine the amount
of income or loss, if any that should be included on page one of the Moores 1994 Form
1040. Tom received $10,000, consisting of $5,000 each of principal and interest, when
he redeemed a Series EE savings bond in 1994. The bond was issued in his name in
1990 and the proceeds were used to pay for Lauras college tuition. Tom had not elected
to report the yearly increases in the value of the bond.
A. $0
B.$500
C. $900
D. $1,000
E. $1,250
F. $1,300
G. $1,500
H. $2,000
I. $2,500
J. $3,000
K. $10,000
L. $25,000
M. $50,000
N. $55,000
O. $75,000 Answer: A
Explanation:
"A" is correct. $0. Generally, if a taxpayer does not make an election to accrue interest
income from Series EE bonds, the interest is taxable at the time the bonds are cashed.
However, an exception applies in this case because Tom Moore meets the criteria
(assume he was 24 years or older in 1990). Savings bonds is tax-exempt when:
(1) It is used to pay for qualified higher-education expenses for the taxpayer, spouse, or
dependents;
(2) There is taxpayer or joint ownership with spouse;
(3) The taxpayer is age 24 (or over) when the bonds are issued; and
(4) The bonds are acquired after 1989.
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AICPA Regulation test syllabus - BingNews
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https://killexams.com/exam_list/AICPAAICPA recognizes 50 top CPA test performers
The American Institute of CPAs announced the 50 winners of the Elijah Watt Sells award Thursday, which recognizes candidates who obtained a cumulative average score above 95.50 across all four sections of the CPA test on their first attempt in 2022.
Of the nearly 67,000 individuals who sat for the CPA test last year, 50 candidates across more than 20 states met the criteria to receive the Elijah Watt Sells award.
"A hearty congratulations to these 50 individuals," said AICPA vice president Mike Decker in a statement. "The CPA test is a rigorous assessment and these individuals have reached a level of understanding and excellence, which has been a milestone of this profession, on their first attempt. These candidates are commended for an exceptional performance that very few individuals achieve."
Created in 1923 to celebrate the top performers on the exam, the program is named after Elijah Watt Sells, one the first CPAs in the U.S. After studying at Baker University without qualifying for a degree, Sells worked as an assistant station agent at a railroad station. Numerous mistakes in his financial reports eventually cost him this opportunity, and Sells decided to take his craft more seriously.
Sells eventually became a prominent figure in the accounting world by participating in the establishment of the AICPA, co-founding the accounting firm Haskins & Sells, which would later become Deloitte, and dedicating himself to boosting educational opportunities for aspiring accountants.
Thu, 01 Jun 2023 10:47:00 -0500entext/htmlhttps://www.accountingtoday.com/news/aicpa-recognizes-50-top-cpa-exam-performersUPSC IAS: Syllabus
UPSC 2022 Syllabus is provided in this article. The syllabus would be helpful for those appearing for the UPSC (IAS) Prelims and Mains test 2022. Check and download in PDF Format below!
UPSC 2022 Syllabus for Prelims: UPSC (IAS) test syllabus for both UPSCPrelims and Mains exams is very wide and difficult to be followed because of its length. So here's the syllabus as a torchbearer for the IAS preparation. It would set the locus of the studies of every aspect of the IAS Exam. The correct interpretation of the UPSC Syllabus could increase the chances of success in the exam. Also, the UPSC CSE Notification 2022 has been released on February 2, 2022, and candidates can apply till February 22, 2022. Check details here.
(i) Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination (Objective Type) for the selection of candidates for the Mains Exam.
(ii) Civil Services Mains Examination (Written) for the selection of candidates for the next level of the UPSC IAS Exam.
(iii) Civil Services Personality Test (PT)- The final stage for the selection process.
The syllabus for all three stages of the test is interlinked and hence needs a deeper look to understand the requirement of each stage of the IAS Exam. You can check the detailed test pattern on the link provided below:
In IAS Prelims, UPSC tests the analytical, logical, and reasoning ability of the candidates. The IAS Prelims test is divided into two parts:
(i) General Studies Paper-I
(ii) General Studies Paper-II
Both papers have a maximum time limit of two hours and the General Studies Paper-II, which is popularly known as CSAT, is only qualifying in nature. The test is conducted on a single day with Paper 1 in the morning session and paper 2 in the evening session.
The UPSC does not follow any particular trend in its prelims question paper, hence it is tough to comprehend anything from the previous year question papers. But they can definitely deliver clarity about what type of questions are asked in the UPSC IAS exam.
2. Interpersonal skills including communication skills;
3. Logical reasoning and analytical ability
4. Decision making and problem-solving ability
5. General mental ability
6. Basic numeracy (numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude, etc.) (Class X level), Data interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency etc. - Class X level)
7. English Language Comprehension skills (Class X level).
8. Questions relating to English Language Comprehension skills of Class X level (last item in the Syllabus of Paper-II) will be tested through passages from English language only without providing Hindi translation thereof in the question paper.
IAS Main test has four general studies papers, two compulsory language papers, oneessay paper, and two papers of Optional subject. It is a descriptive type of test and has a totally enhanced version of the IAS Prelims exam. It can be said that the IAS Main Syllabus is a mammoth expansion of the IAS Prelims Syllabus.
(i) Comprehension of given passages (ii) Précis Writing (iii) Usage and Vocabulary (iv) Short Essays (v) Translation from English to the Indian language and vice-versa
300
7
English
Comprehension of given passages Précis Writing Usage and Vocabulary Short Essays
300
8
Optional Paper I
As opted by Candidate
250
9
Optional Paper II
As opted by Candidate
250
List of Optional Subject and Syllabus in IAS Mains test 2021
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Wed, 20 Feb 2019 15:47:00 -0600text/htmlhttps://www.jagranjosh.com/exams/upsc-ias/syllabusMAH CET Syllabus
DTE Maharashtra has updated MAHCET 2021 Syllabus. Find out the revised MAHCET syllabus in order to prepare for the test productively.
DTE Maharashtra had updated the MAHCET MBA test syllabus and the details of the changes introduced in the syllabus will help you understand the expectations in the exam. The MAHCET test is scheduled to be conducted on a later date to be notified soon. Therefore, it is important that the candidates go through the revised MAHCET syllabus in order to prepare for the examination productively. In case, there are any updates for the MAH-MBA/MMS CET 2021 exam, it will be notified on this page.
MAHCET 2021 - VARC Syllabus
Questions from this section are mainly asked to test candidates’ English language proficiency. In this test, there will be passages with questions based on their contents to test candidate’s comprehension ability.
Under this section candidate’s English Language ability will be tested with the help of questions from grammar, vocabulary, sentence completion, synonyms, antonyms, memorizing comprehension of passages etc.
Under this section, questions are asked to test that how fast and accurate a candidate can work with numbers, do numerical calculations understand various arithmetic problems.
Questions from this section are mainly asked from following topics;
It’s also important to know about the kind of Topics that will be covered in the final test and weightage of marks for each topic. Take a look at this following table, to understand about the marking scheme of MAHCET exam:
Topics
No. of Questions
Marks per Question
Maximum Marks
Total Marks
Logical Reasoning
75
1
75
200
Abstract Reasoning
25
1
25
Quantitative Aptitude
50
1
50
Verbal Ability/Reading Comprehension
50
1
50
MAHCET 2021 Syllabus: Key Points
The test will comprise of multiple choice questions with 5 options for each question
There is no negative marking system for this test
Test duration is of 150 minutes
The medium of paper will be in English
Mode of the examination will be Online
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Sat, 15 Aug 2020 23:31:00 -0500text/htmlhttps://www.jagranjosh.com/exams/mah-cet/syllabusCFP test 101: Everything You Need to Know to Pass the CFP TestNo result found, try new keyword!The CFP test is for the financial industry what the bar is for the legal industry. Being a certified financial planner, or CFP, is largely considered the gold standard in financial planning.Thu, 31 Jan 2019 01:13:00 -0600text/htmlhttps://money.usnews.com/investing/investing-101/articles/cfp-exam-101-everything-you-need-to-know-to-pass-the-cfp-testAssessment and examination regulations
Assessment in Taught Courses
Eligibility for Assessment
1. Students who enrol for a course, pay their fees and do not withdraw or have their enrolment otherwise cancelled by the University must be awarded a grade in that course.
2. Some courses require compulsory attendance at classes, including laboratories, field trips, practical exercises, contact workshops or block courses. In such courses, course co-ordinators shall advise students in writing at the commencement of tuition that non-attendance, without exemption having been granted, constitutes failure in the course, regardless of the rest of the assessment procedure. In such a case, students shall receive a DC for the course.
3. Course coordinators shall advise students at the commencement of tuition which elements of the assessed course work will contribute towards the final grade for the course, and which elements, if any, are compulsory. Unless otherwise stated all final exams are compulsory. Without exemption having been granted, failure to:
(a) attend a compulsory exam; or
(b) submit a compulsory assessment element; or
(c) complete assessment components totalling 51 percent or more of the total assessment; or
(d) submit a Specific Circumstances Application;
⠀⠀constitutes failure in the course, regardless of the rest of the assessment procedure, and will result in a DC for the course.
Key to Grading System
Re-marking of Assessed Course work
4. Students who seek to have an assessed course work component re-marked should consult with the course coordinator to clarify the feedback and/or the mark awarded. Re-marking of course work is offered in exceptional circumstances only; the onus is on the student to justify the request. Cases based on calculation errors within the original marking of the course work should be forwarded to the course coordinator.
⠀⠀For coursework to be eligible for re-marking it must:
(a) be the original work submitted for assessment together with the marker's comments;
(b) normally contribute at least 15 percent towards the final grade for the course;
(c) must have been formally assessed only once previously;
(d) be submitted within one week from the date of release of the original assessment result.
⠀⠀As a result of a re-mark, the grade for the course work could remain unchanged, or be amended upwards or downwards. Students in named Doctoral degrees must refer to the specific doctoral degree regulations for separate details of remarking provisions as the above regulations do not apply to named Doctoral students.
Examinations in Taught Courses
Time and Venue
1. (a) The examinations conducted by the University shall be held at the places and times specified in the examination timetables authorised by the Deputy Vice-Chancellor Students and Global Engagement (or delegate) .
(b) College-administered examinations will be held in accordance with each College's timetable and process and authorised by the Pro-Vice Chancellor.
Written Entry
2. (a) Students enrolled in an internal offering of a course are not required to deliver notice in writing of intention to present themselves for examination.
(b) (i) Students enrolled in a distance (extramural) or block mode offering of a course are required to elect the centre where they propose to sit their examinations (from the published list of centres) when completing the Enrolment Application.
(ii) When subsequently advising a change of address, students must either confirm or amend the proposed examination centre.
Examination Procedure
3. The examinations shall consist of such written, oral, practical and online examinations as the examiners may determine.
4. Candidates shall answer questions in the presence of a supervisor, who shall be appointed or approved by the Deputy Vice-Chancellor Students and Global Engagement (or delegate) and in accordance with such detailed instructions as may be furnished by the Council.
5. Candidates must comply with the Examination Rules, copies of which are available from the University website.
6. No candidate shall communicate with an examiner in regard to an examination until after grades are published, except through Assessment Services, Student Registry or the relevant College Office or their delegate.
7. Any candidate who has a disability which could be considered to adversely affect performance under ordinary examination conditions must inform Assessment Services at least six weeks prior to the commencement of the examination period or as soon as the candidate becomes aware of the disability (whichever is the latter), and supply such documentary evidence as is required.
8. The examination scripts shall be transmitted to the examiners, who shall report the results for the course according to published dates.
9. Assessments (including major tests) and examination scripts not routinely returned to students are retained by academic departments for a period of 12 months.
Re-marking of Examination Scripts
10. Any student may have their examination script re-marked by the examiners, followed by a recalculation of the final grade where appropriate. Application must be made via the student homepage; the following conditions must be met:
(a) The examination must have been formally assessed only once previously.
(b) No additional information from the student shall be placed before the examiners.
(c) Application must be made within seven days from the release of the official results of examinations.
(d) Payment of the prescribed fee must accompany the application.
⠀⠀As a result of a re-mark, the final grade could remain unchanged, or be amended upwards or downwards. The application fee will be refunded if there is a change of final grade.
Withholding of Grades
11. If the completion of marking and assessment falls outside the normal time period, provision of final grades for awards or consideration of Academic Progression may be deferred.
12. In exceptional circumstances, the University may withhold the award of a grade in accordance with the Procedures for Withholding of Grades (located in the Massey University Assessment Handbook) to allow the student to complete an outstanding component of the course regulations.
Specific Circumstances Framework
13. The University recognises that Exceptional Personal Circumstances may arise that make it difficult or impossible for a student to continue with their study. Where such circumstances arise after the census date for On-time Withdrawal, the University may, at its sole discretion, consider alternative arrangements. Students may apply for Specific Circumstances including Aegrotat/Impaired Performance and Fee Return consideration and in certain circumstances such applications may result in Research Students carrying forward their enrolment or students being given the opportunity to undertake resits and supplementary assessments.
Specific Circumstances Applications
(a) May be made on the grounds of long-term or pre-existing illness, injury, or disability or learning impairment where:
• the student has a Provision of Support from the University related to their situation, and/or
• where successful completion of one or more learning experiences, assessments or examination activities is compromised by a temporary acute episode of impairment, or at the onset of a long-term condition where diagnosis or injury occurred after the date for On-time withdrawal in the course which is the subject of the application.
(b) Applications for specific circumstances may not normally be made under these Regulations by Doctoral candidates. Doctoral candidates are referred to the Doctoral Journey Stream website. Students enrolled in non-doctoral postgraduate theses, dissertations, research reports, or project courses may apply for Specific Circumstances, including the Carry Forward of Postgraduate Enrolment regulation.
(c) Applications for specific circumstances must normally be supported by an application form and evidence or an attestation by a Designated Student Support Officer of the University and normally be made no later than fourteen days after the date of the first assessment or activity for which the Specific Circumstances consideration is sought, and no later than one week after the course end date.
(d) A valid application will be submitted in the manner required, meet the conditions specified, and upon grounds that are acceptable to the University. The University shall assess the application and if it is accepted, the University will determine an outcome to the student according to their circumstances and the achievement in learning of the course(s).
Aegrotat and Impaired Performance Remedies Within Specific Circumstances Framework
(e) May only be made for summative assessment or examination activity or compulsory activities outlined in the Course Guide.
(f) Will not normally be approved for an assessment or examination activity that constitutes less than 10% of the weighted assessment for a course.
(g) For the avoidance of doubt, any Specific Circumstances Remedy will not result in a passing grade for a course where Academic Board or its delegate cannot be satisfied on reasonable grounds that the student would have passed the course if they had not experienced the Exceptional Personal Circumstances.
(h) The outcome of a Specific Circumstances Framework remedy may only be appealed once in writing to the Academic Board or its delegate (normally the Chief Examiner of the relevant College) within 2 weeks of the release of the final grade for the course or of the finalisation of the Specific Circumstances application (whichever is the latter).
Aegrotat Consideration Remedies
(i) Students who have been prevented by Exceptional Personal Circumstances from being able to complete any assessment or examination activity or compulsory learning experience, defined in the Course Guide, may apply for Specific Circumstances and remedies may include Aegrotat consideration.
(j) When a request for Specific Circumstances is approved the Academic Board or its delegate may decide to award a grade(s) or afford the student with further opportunity to complete the assessment(s) or activities or afford an opportunity for a deferred assessment. The Academic Board or its delegate will have regard to the proportion and quality of the student's course work as completed, whether the learning outcomes have been attained, and any other concessions granted.
(k) Grades that may be awarded following an Aegrotat consideration on a course are: a letter grade including pass grades A+ to C-, fail grades of D, E or F, AG pass, or DC.
(i) A passing letter grade (i.e. A+ to C-) may only be considered for award where at least 60% of the weighted assessment for the course has been completed and all the compulsory elements required in the course outline have been passed (except the element(s) which are the subject of the application).
(ii) An AG pass may only be considered for award where at least 40% of the weighted assessment for the course has been completed, and all the compulsory elements required in the course outline have been passed (except the element(s) which are the subject of the application). Deferred assessments must be completed prior to the end of the enrolment period as specified by the end date for the course that is the subject of the application, unless the conditions of Regulation 13(l) are met
(l) Under limited circumstances, an exceptional opportunity to meet the course requirements may be afforded to a student through the recording of a temporary NF (Not Finalised) grade. The NF will be in place until such time as an equivalent learning experience or deferred assessment activity takes place, which shall be no later than the beginning of the next available offering of the course. This option will most commonly apply where the request for Specific Circumstances is approved but the Aegrotat outcome(s) would otherwise still result in a fail outcome for the course(s). If a student does not complete the additional assessment or activity the NF grade will then be changed to a fail grade or DC.
Impaired Performance Remedies
(m) Students who consider that their performance in, or preparation for, any assessment or examination activity has been impaired due to Exceptional Personal Circumstances may apply for Specific Circumstances and remedies may include Impaired Performance consideration.
(n) Academic Board or its delegate, at its discretion may evaluate the student's Exceptional Personal Circumstances and overall performance and decide whether a mark awarded should be altered, or whether to afford the student with a supplementary assessment. In this evaluation process, the Academic Board or its delegate will have regard to the student's course work as completed, whether performance in the assessment is atypical compared to other assessments completed, and in relation to the overall class performance for the assessment completed, and any other concessions granted.
Fee Return Remedies
(o) The remedy arising from Specific Circumstances Framework considerations submitted by some students may include a Fee Return Remedy. Fee Return Remedies may be applied when a student has Exceptional Personal Circumstances and other Specific Circumstances Remedies have been considered and the Academic Board or its delegate believe those other remedies will not result in a student having a reasonable likelihood of completing a course. Whether a credit or refund is granted is determined by the University following the Specific Circumstances (Fee Return) process.
(p) There is no strict requirement for a student making a Specific Circumstances application which may result in a Fee Return to have withdrawn from the course/s first, in order for this remedy to be applied by Academic Board or its delegate and once this remedy is applied a withdrawal will then be applied.
Assignments and Examinations in Te Reo Māori
14. The Māori language is an official language (he reo whai mana) of Aotearoa. The University endeavours to recognise this and support the revitalisation and retention of Te Reo Māori with respect to Te Tiriti o Waitangi. Students who are proficient in Te Reo Māori and have the necessary level of competency are encouraged to write assignments, tests, examinations, and text accompanying creative works, in Te Reo Māori, subject to approval and where the subject is considered to be appropriate. Students wishing to pursue this option should make application to the Assessment Manager, Student Administration, by 31 January for Semester One and Double Semester courses and by 16 June for Semester Two and Summer School courses.
⠀ Doctoral theses may be submitted in Te Reo Māori, English, or a combination of both languages. The oral examination may also be conducted in Te Reo Māori. Candidates intending to submit their doctoral thesis in Te Reo Māori, or in a substantial combination of English and Te Reo Māori, must indicate this intention within two months of provisional registration. They should supply a letter from the DVC (Māori and Pasifika) or a staff member fluent in Te Reo Māori, affirming that they have the required level of competency in Te Reo Māori, will be working in an area where the language is considered to be appropriate, and that supervisory expertise is available in the Māori language.
Assignments and Examinations in New Zealand Sign Language
15. NZ Sign Language is an official language of Aotearoa. The University recognises this and endeavours to support students who communicate primarily through sign language. In order to allow the University to arrange for the marking process for oral assessments and examinations students wishing to pursue this option are required to make an application to the Assessment Manager by 31 January for Semester One and Double Semester courses and by 16 June for Semester Two and Summer School courses. Students are also requested to advise their course team in advance.
Examination – Research Reports, Dissertations, Master's and Doctoral Theses
Research Reports and Dissertations
16. (a) All research reports and dissertations (up to 60 credits) shall be graded by two examiners, at least one of whom shall be independent of the research work, with external moderation undertaken in accordance with College policies.
(b) At the discretion of the Chief Examiner for the course, a candidate may be examined orally on the subject of the research report or dissertation.
(c) At the discretion of the Chief Examiner, a failed research report or dissertation may be revised and resubmitted once and may be subject to re-examination. Following successful re-examination the candidate will not be eligible for Honours or Distinction unless the initial submission was subject to Exceptional Personal Circumstances recognised through an approved Specific Circumstances application.
Master's and Doctoral Theses
17. General
(a) The use of Te Reo in a thesis will follow the guidelines set out in Massey University's Māori Language Policy: Matua Reo Kaupapa.
(b) Theses shall, unless the Librarian otherwise approves, conform with the format requirements as detailed in the current library handbook a Guide to the Presentation of Theses.
(c) Master's and Doctoral Theses shall be submitted in digital form.
(d) University records of the examiner's assessment of the thesis shall be retained and disposed of in accordance with the University General Disposal Authority as required under the Public Records Act 2005. The student academic transcript shall be archived in accordance with the University General Disposal Authority as required under the Public Records Act 2005.
18. Master's Theses
(a) A candidate whose examination includes the presentation of a thesis (≥90 credits) shall have an approved supervisor(s) before commencing work on the research. A thesis may comprise a creative work and exegesis.
(b) Before the thesis is forwarded to the examiners, the candidate, Supervisor and Head of Academic Unit shall certify that the thesis embodies original work carried out by the candidate under direct supervision.
(c) All Master's theses shall be graded by two examiners who are independent of the research work and one of whom is external to the University.
(d) At the discretion of the examiner(s), a candidate may be examined orally on the subject of the Master's thesis.
(e) At the discretion of the Chief Examiner, a failed Master's thesis may be revised and re-submitted once and may be subject to re-examination. Following successful re-examination the candidate will not be eligible for Honours or Distinction unless the initial submission was subject to Exceptional Personal Circumstances recognised through and approved Specific Circumstances application.
(f) For the purposes of the assessment of the Master's degree thesis a candidate shall be required to submit their thesis online or as otherwise agreed by the Chief Examiner.
(g) For Master's theses, if the thesis has been accepted with no emendations or amendments, the student has finished. If emendations or amendments are required once the final version is approved, the supervisor shall be responsible for presenting a final digital copy of the thesis.
19. Doctoral Theses
(a) For the purposes of the assessment of the Doctoral degree thesis a candidate shall be required to submit a PDF digital copy of their thesis via the student portal. For theses with a creative art component, the format will be as agreed by the Doctoral Research Committee.
(b) As soon as the assessment has been completed, and the final version approved, in the case of successful candidates, the candidate or the candidate's supervisor shall be responsible for submission of one digital copy of the final approved thesis, as accepted under clause 17(c), and a citation, via the Library portal.
Wed, 22 Mar 2023 13:44:00 -0500en-NZtext/htmlhttps://www.massey.ac.nz/about/university-calendar-and-regulations/assessment-and-examination-regulations/CSEET November 2023 Syllabus revised; New test pattern, details
CSEET November 2023: The Institute of Company Secretaries of India (ICSI) has revised the CS Executive Entrance Test (CSEET 2023) November session exam. Candidates who are appearing in the CSEET November 2023 examination can check the complete syllabus through the official website of the ICSI at icsi.edu.
"The Syllabus of Company Secretary Executive Entrance Test (CSEET) has been revised and applicable from November 2023 CSEET Session onwards," ICSI said. The candidates who have passed or appeared in the senior secondary (10+2) test or equivalent are eligible to appear in the ICSI CSEET November 2023 exam.
Part
Subject
Sub Part
Total Marks
1
Business Communication
--
50
2
Legal Aptitude and Logical Reasoning
A - Legal Aptitude (30 Marks)
B - Logical Reasoning (20 Marks)
50
3
Economic and Business Environment
A – Economics (25 Marks)
B – Business Environment (25 Mark)
50
4
Current Affairs and Quantitative
A – Current Affairs (30 Marks)
B – Quantitative Aptitude (20 Marks)
50
Total Marks
200
Sat, 20 May 2023 17:23:00 -0500entext/htmlhttps://www.indiatvnews.com/education/higher-studies/cseet-november-2023-syllabus-revised-new-exam-pattern-details-2023-05-21-871733JEE Main 2023: test Date, Registration, Syllabus, Question Paper, Admit Card, Answer Key Solutions, Results, CounsellingJEE Main 2023 test Latest Updates: The National Testing Agency (NTA) released the JEE Main 2023 Session 2 Result on April 29, 2023, whereas, JEE Main Session 1 Results were declared on February 6, 2023, on the official portal - jeemain.nta.nic.in. The Session 1 of JEE Main 2023 exams was conducted on 24, 25, 29, 30 , 31 January and 1 February 2023 for B.E./B.Tech (Paper I) and 28 January (2nd Shift) for B.Arch and B.Planning (Paper 2A & Paper 2B). The second session of JEE Main 2023 test was conducted on April 06, 08, 10, 11, 12, 13, and 15 2023. The NTA JEE Mains 2023 was conducted as a computer-based test for admission to BE/B.Tech, B.Arch, and B-Plan courses by the participating institutes. JEE Main test is generally conducted in two sessions in January and April. This page will help engineering aspirants keep track of all the JEE Main latest news updates, including - JEE Main test date, JEE Main notification, JEE Main registration, JEE Main application form, JEE Main admit card, JEE Main question paper, JEE Main answer key solutions, JEE Main result, JEE Main counselling, JEE Main cut off etc. Table of Content JEE Main test Date
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The JEE Main 2023 Session 1 test commenced on 24 January 2023, with the BE/BTech papers and concluded on 1 February 2023 and Session 2 exams were conducted between April 6 to April 15, 2023. The JEE Main Session 1 Results 2023 were released on 6 February 2023 while Session 2 results were announced on April 29, 2023. The JEE Main 2023 test dates provided below will help students plan their study schedule and stay ahead of competition.
JEE Main Session 1 test Date 2023
JEE Main 2023 Application Form Submission
15 December 2022 to 12 January 2023
(up to 09:00 P.M.)
JEE Main 2023 Fee Payment Last date
12 January 2023 (up to 11:50 P.M.)
JEE Main 2023 test City Intimation Slip
18 January 2023
JEE Main 2023 Admit Card Release
21 January 2023
JEE Main 2023 Session 1 test Date
24, 25, 29, 30 , 31 January and 1 February 2023
Answer Key & Response Sheet
Provisional: 2 February 2023 Final: 6 February 2023
Result Date
6 February 2023
JEE Main 2023 Session 2 test Date
JEE Main 2023 Application Form Submission
February 15, 2023
JEE Main 2023 Fee Payment Last date
March 12, 2023
JEE Main 2023 test City Intimation Slip
Third week of March 2023
JEE Main 2023 Admit Card Release
Last week of March 2023
JEE Main 2023 Session 2 test Date
06, 08, 10, 11, 12, 13, and 15 April 2023
Answer Key & Response Sheet
April 19, 2023
Result Date
April 29, 2023
JEE Main test Timings 2023
NTA conducted JEE Main 2023 test in two shifts - Morning and Evening on each day. The timing of JEE Main Shift 1 was from 9:00 AM to 12:00 Noon while the timing of Shift 2 was from 3:00 PM to 6:00 PM. Candidates can take the help of this table to check JEE Main timings 2023.
Event
JEE Main Shift 1
JEE Main Shift 2
JEE Main 2023 test Duration
9.00 am to 12 noon
3.00 pm to 6.00 pm
Entry to the JEE Main 2023 test Center
7:30 am to 8:30 am
2:00 pm to 2:30 pm
JEE Main 2023 Instructions by Examiner
8:30 am to 8:50 am
2:30 pm to 2:50 pm
Candidates log in to read instructions
8:50 am
2:50 pm
JEE Main 2023 test will start
9:00 am
3:00 pm
JEE Main Registration
JEE Main 2023 registration date was released on the official website - jeemain.nta.nic.in - in December 2023. The JEE Main 2023 registration for Session 1 exams were open from 15 December 2022 to 12 January 2023. Earlier, the JEE Main 2023 registration for session 2 was scheduled to commence from February 7 but it was delayed by the National Testing Agency (NTA) and it commenced on February 14 to concluded on March 12, 2023, but it was reopened from March 15 to March 16, 2023, again. The JEE Main registration process includes filling the online registration form, uploading documents, application fee payment and submission.
JEE Main Application Form
JEE Main 2023 application form was available on the official website of the test - jeemain.nta.nic.in. The JEE Main application form 2023 for January session was released on 15 December 2022, and the last date to submit the application form was 12 January 2023. The JEE Main 2023 application form for the April session has been closed by NTA. Candidates might, however, change the category in the JEE Main application if necessary. From April 20 to 22, the JEE Main 2023 category correction window was available. The final day to register for JEE Main session 2 in 2023 was March 16, 2023. Candidates who wish to apply for the JEE Main 2023 application form can follow the steps provided below to complete the process:
Go to the official website of the JEE Main 2023 examination - jeemain.nta.nic.in
Click on the JEE Main 2023 registration link, and then click on 'new registration'
Enter your email ID, phone number, and verify using OTP
Set your password, and note down the username and password for further reference
Next, fill in JEE Main online application form with your personal details, 10th & 12th marks, upload supporting documents
Upload your digital signature, and photo
Make the JEE Main application fee payment and download the receipt
Next, click on submit to complete JEE Main online form submission
JEE Main Eligibility and Qualifications
Candidates are advised to read the JEE Main Eligibility criteria carefully before submitting the online application form. The JEE Main 2023 eligibility criterial details are provided below for the reference of the candidates:
Age Criteria: There is no age limit for the candidates to apply for the JEE Main 2023 examination. However, the candidates may be required to fulfill the age criteria of the Institute(s) to which they are desirous of taking admission.
List of Qualifying Examination (QE): The candidate should have cleared the final examination of the 10+2 system conducted by recognised Central or state board.
Year of Appearance in Qualifying Examination (QE): Candidates who have passed the Class 12/equivalent examination in 2021, 2022, or those who are appearing for the same in 2023, can apply for JEE Main 2023 exam.
JEE Main Application Form Correction Date
The JEE Main 2023 session 2 application form correction window has been closed by NTA. On April 21, 2023, the form correction window at jeemain.nta.nic.in 2023 was open. Candidates had time till April 22 at 11:50 PM to alter or change their category on the JEE Mains 2023 application form. Previously, candidates had the March 13–March 14, 2023 window to make changes to their JEE Main 2023 Application form. On the official website jeemain.nta.nic.in, candidates had to modify the session 2 application form of JEE Mains 2023 data. By entering in with their application ID and password, candidates were able to edit the information they had supplied in their April 2023 JEE Main application form. Candidates will be able to make changes in name, parent's name, category, sub-category, city and medium, year of passing class 10th and 12th including qualification and course.
The officials have issued JEE Main Admit Card 2023 on the official website. Candidates can download the JEE Main 2023 admit card through the official website by entering their application number and date of birth. Candidates should note that JEE Main Hall Ticket 2023 contains important details like test date, timing and Exam Center along with personal details of the candidate. The JEE Main 2023 admit card for the session 1 examinations were released on 21 January 2023. The JEE Main admit card 2023 for session 2 were released on April 6 and will conclude on April 15.
JEE Main Answer Key Date
JEE Main answer key 2023 for session 1 was released on 02 February 2023 on the officials website of JEE Main test - jeemain.nta.nic.in. The JEE Main 2023 Final Answer Key for Session 1 exams were released on 6 February 2023. With the help of JEE Main 2023 answer key, candidates can calculate their probable scores and estimate their rank. Regarding the objections the officials also started the facility to challenge the answer key through online medium. On April 19, NTA published the session 2 provisional JEE Main 2023 answer key.
JEE Main Result JEE Main Result 2023 Session 1 examination was released on 6 February 2023 on the official website of the JEE Main examination - jeemain.nta.nic.in. The JEE Main 2023 result for session 2 was declared on April 29, 2023. Candidates can check their JEE Main 2023 result by logging into the result portal using their application number and date of birth.
JEE Main Cut Off
Along with the release of the JEE Main result for 2023, the authorities have also released the IIT JEE Main qualifying cutoff. The JEE Main cut off is the minimum score required to qualify for the next round of the Joint Entrance Examination i.e. JEE Advanced. The cut off score is determined by the National Testing Agency (NTA) based on factors such as the number of applicants, the difficulty of the exam, and the availability of seats. The cut off for JEE Main varies each year and can also vary for different categories of candidates (such as general, OBC, SC, ST, and PwD). Stay connected with us to know more about JEE Main 2023 cut off.
JEE Main Counselling
JEE Main 2023 counselling is to be held on June 18 2023. Based on the JEE Main 2023 cut off, NTA will prepare a merit list and will call qualified candidates for the counselling process.
JEE Main counselling is the process of allotting seats to qualified candidates in engineering colleges across India based on their JEE Main score and rank. The counselling process is typically conducted by the Central Seat Allocation Board (CSAB) or the Joint Seat Allocation Authority (JoSAA).
The counselling process typically involves the following steps:
Online registration: Candidates will need to register online on the official website of CSAB or JoSAA.
Choice filling and locking: Candidates will have to fill in their preferred college and course options and lock them.
Seat allotment: Based on the choices filled by the candidates and the availability of seats, the CSAB or JoSAA will allot seats to the candidates.
Payment of fees: Candidates will have to pay the fee for the allotted seat within the given time period.
Reporting to the allotted college: Candidates will have to physically report to the allotted college and complete the admission process.
JEE Main Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
When was the JEE Main 2023 test conducted? NTA conducted JEE Main 2023 test on 24, 25, 29, 30 , 31 January and 1 February 2023 for session 1 and session 2 exams were held on 06, 08, 10, 11, 12 April 2023.
How was the JEE Main 2023 application form be released? The NTA released the JEE Main 2023 Application Form online on the official web portal - jeemain.nta.nic.in. The candidates had to register and apply for the JEE Main 2023 test online only.
What is the syllabus of JEE Main 2023? JEE Main 2023 Syllabus has Topics from Mathematics, Chemistry, and Physics textbooks from the Classes 10, 11, and 12. Candidates can check the JEE Main 2023 syllabus by visiting the official website or on this page.
What is the date of JEE Main answer key 2023? The JEE Main 2023 answer key for the session 1 test was released 2 February 2023. Th JEE Main answer key 2023 for the session 2 was released on 19 April 2023.
When was JEE Main Admit Card 2023 Session 2 be issued? The JEE Main admit card 2023 for session 2 were released on April 6 and will conclude on April 15. Candidates can check and download their admit card through JEE Main portal - jeemain.nta.nic.in.
Amrita Entrance Examination - Engineering (AEEE) 2023 syllabus will carry Topics of 10+2 standard from the subjects Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and English. The syllabus is unanimously contemplated and designed taking suggestions from all the recognised boards across India.
Overview of Syllabus for AEEE 2023
Subject
Topics
Mathematics
Sets, Relations and Functions
Complex Numbers
Permutations and Combinations
Binomial Theorem
Sequences and Series
Matrices and Determinants
Quadratic Equations
Trigonometry
Measures Of Central Tendency and Dispersion
Probability
Co-ordinate Geometry
Circles and Family of Circles
Conic Sections
Vector Algebra
Three-Dimensional Geometry
Physics
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Tue, 21 Mar 2023 13:36:00 -0500entext/htmlhttps://www.telegraphindia.com/edugraph/colleges/exams/aeee-2023-amrita-entrance-examination-engineering-2023/syllabus/141West Bengal Board News
The West Bengal Board test is conducted by the West Bengal Board of Secondary Education (WBBSE) for Class 10 students and by the West Bengal Council of Higher Secondary Education (WBCHSE) for Class 12/HSE students in the state of West Bengal. Students are advised to stay connected with the TimesofIndia.com for the latest news and updates on West Bengal Board test Date Sheet, Admit Card, Result, Marksheet, and other details.
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The West Bengal State Board Exams are conducted by the West Bengal Board of Secondary Education (WBBSE) for secondary level or class 10 and the West Bengal Council of Higher Secondary Education (WBCHSE) conducts the higher secondary or class 12 exams. These exams are an important milestone in a student's academic career as they determine their eligibility for higher education and also serve as a means of assessing their overall academic performance. The WBBSE and the WBCHSE release the date sheets, admit cards, previous year question papers, and results for these exams on their official websites.
WBBSE Class 10 Board Exams
The West Bengal Board of Secondary Education Class 10 examination conducted for students studying in the state of West Bengal. The Class 10 Board test usually consists of six subjects, namely, First Language, Second Language, Mathematics, Physical Science, Life Science, and Optional Elective Subjects. The test is usually conducted in the month of February/March and the results are usually announced in the month of June/July. To pass the exam, students need to score a minimum of 30% marks in each subject and an overall aggregate of 60% marks.
West Bengal Class 10 Board test Syllabus
The West Bengal Board of Secondary Education (WBBSE) prescribes the syllabus for the Class 10 Board Exam. The syllabus is designed to provide a comprehensive understanding of the subjects and help students develop the required knowledge and skills. Here is a brief overview of the subjects and Topics covered in the West Bengal Class 10 Board Exam:
First Language (Bengali/English): The syllabus includes the study of literature, grammar, comprehension, and composition.
Second Language (Any one from Hindi/Urdu/Nepali/Santali/Oriya/Telugu/Gujarati): The syllabus includes the study of grammar, comprehension, and composition.
Mathematics: The syllabus includes Topics such as algebra, geometry, trigonometry, mensuration, and statistics.
Physical Science: The syllabus includes Topics such as force, motion, energy, sound, light, and electricity.
Life Science: The syllabus includes Topics such as cell structure and functions, reproduction, genetics, ecology, and evolution.
Optional Elective Subjects: Students can choose one optional elective subject from a list of subjects such as computer science, music, art, and physical education.
The WBBSE regularly updates the Class 10 Board test syllabus to ensure that it is relevant and up-to-date. Students can download the latest syllabus from the official website of the WBBSE.
WBCHSE Class 12 Board Exams
WBCHSE Class 12 Board test refers to the West Bengal Council of Higher Secondary Education Class 12 examination conducted for students studying in the state of West Bengal. The test is an important milestone in a student's academic career as it determines their eligibility for higher education. The WBCHSE releases the date sheet, admit card, previous year question papers, and results for this test on its official website.
The Class 12 Board test is conducted in the streams of Science, Commerce, and Arts, and consists of various subjects. The syllabus for each subject is designed to provide a comprehensive understanding of the Topics and help students develop the required knowledge and skills. The test is usually conducted in the month of March/April and the results are usually announced in the month of June/July.
To pass the exam, students need to score a minimum of 30% marks in each subject and an overall aggregate of 60% marks. The Class 12 Board test is an important test that helps students determine their career path and eligibility for higher education.
WBCHSE Class 12 Board test Syllabus
The West Bengal Council of Higher Secondary Education (WBCHSE) prescribes the syllabus for the Class 12 Board Exam. The syllabus is designed to provide a comprehensive understanding of the subjects and help students develop the required knowledge and skills. Here is a brief overview of the subjects and Topics covered in the West Bengal Class 12 Board Exam:
Science Stream: The Science stream consists of subjects such as Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics, Biology, and Computer Science. The syllabus includes a detailed study of the Topics covered in each subject, including theory, practicals, and projects.
Commerce Stream: The Commerce stream consists of subjects such as Accountancy, Business Studies, Economics, Mathematics, and Computer Science. The syllabus includes a detailed study of the Topics covered in each subject, including theory, practicals, and projects.
Arts Stream: The Arts stream consists of subjects such as History, Geography, Political Science, Sociology, Philosophy, and Psychology. The syllabus includes a detailed study of the Topics covered in each subject, including theory, practicals, and projects.
The WBCHSE regularly updates the Class 12 Board test syllabus to ensure that it is relevant and up-to-date. Students can download the latest syllabus from the official website of the WBCHSE.
West Bengal Board test Results 2023
The West Bengal Board test Results are usually declared in the month of June/July for Class 10 and Class 12 exams. The West Bengal Board of Secondary Education (WBBSE) declares the Class 10 Board test results, while the West Bengal Council of Higher Secondary Education (WBCHSE) declares the Class 12 Board test results.
The board test results are typically released on the official websites of the respective boards. Students can check their results by entering their roll number and other required details. The result declaration is usually accompanied by the release of merit lists, toppers list, and other statistics related to the performance of students.
In case a student is not satisfied with their board test result, they can apply for revaluation or rechecking of their answer sheets. The boards have a specific procedure for this, and students need to follow it to apply for revaluation or rechecking.
The board test results are important as they determine a student's eligibility for further education and career opportunities. Therefore, students are advised to keep track of the latest updates regarding the board exams and results.
Fri, 05 May 2023 07:53:00 -0500entext/htmlhttps://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/education/west-bengal-boardJEE test Main 2020: New test Pattern and Syllabus released, Know what are the changes at jeemain.nta.nic.in
National Testing Agency (NTA) has released an application form for the engineering entrance test on September 2 (Monday). The interested candidates can apply at jeemain.nic.in or nta.ac.in. NTA has already started receiving applications for JEE Main test online, now the agency has announced the introduction of a new paper along with a new test pattern for the JEE Main Exam.
Till 2018, JEE Main was held once in a year by the Central Board of Secondary Education, however, the NTA conducts the test twice a year now. The first session of JEE Main was held in January and the second was conducted in April, however over 10 lakh candidates are expected to appear for the test this year.
The Paper-I was meant for candidates aspiring to take admission in B.Tech. courses, while Paper-II was for those who wished to take admission in B.Arch. or B.Planning courses offered by NITs, IIITs or Centrally-funded Technical Institutes.
Now, the agency has introduced Paper-III which is only meant for entry to B.Planning courses, which means now students have the clear choice to appear for Paper-I meant for B.Tech., Paper-II for B.Arch., and Paper-III for B.Planning.
Mode of Examination JEE (Main)-2020 will be conducted in the following modes:
a) B.E. /B. Tech. in “Computer Based Test (CBT)” mode only.
b) B. Arch: Mathematics- Part I and Aptitude Test-Part II in “Computer Based Test (CBT)” mode only and Drawing Test –Part III in offline mode on drawing sheet of A4 size.
c) B.Planning : Mathematics- Part I , Aptitude Test-Part II and Planning Based Questions Part III in “Computer Based Test (CBT)” mode only
The students advised choosing the subjects wisely, as the subjects are more clear according to the courses.
Fri, 23 Dec 2022 17:26:00 -0600text/htmlhttps://www.zeebiz.com/india/news-jee-exam-main-2020-new-exam-pattern-and-syllabus-released-know-what-are-the-changes-at-jeemainntanicin-110006
