CCFH-202 study help - CrowdStrike Certified Falcon Hunter (CCFH) Certification Updated: 2024
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Exam Code: CCFH-202 CrowdStrike Certified Falcon Hunter (CCFH) Certification study help January 2024 by Killexams.com team
|CrowdStrike Certified Falcon Hunter (CCFH) Certification
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Other CrowdStrike examsCCFA-200 CrowdStrike Certified Falcon Administrator (CCFA)
CCFH-202 CrowdStrike Certified Falcon Hunter (CCFH) Certification
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An analyst has sorted all latest detections in the Falcon platform to identify the oldest in an effort to determine the
possible first victim host What is this type of analysis called?
A. Visualization of hosts
B. Statistical analysis
C. Temporal analysis
D. Machine Learning
Temporal analysis is a type of analysis that focuses on the timing and sequence of events in order to identify patterns,
trends, or anomalies. By sorting all latest detections in the Falcon platform to identify the oldest, an analyst can
perform temporal analysis to determine the possible first victim host and trace back the origin of an attack.
Refer to Exhibit.
Falcon detected the above file attempting to execute.
At initial glance; what indicators can we use to provide an initial analysis of the file?
A. VirusTotal, Hybrid Analysis, and Google pivot indicator lights enabled
B. File name, path, Local and Global prevalence within the environment
C. File path, hard disk volume number, and IOC Management action
D. Local prevalence, IOC Management action, and Event Search
The file name, path, Local and Global prevalence are indicators that can provide an initial analysis of the file without
relying on external sources or tools. The file name can indicate the purpose or origin of the file, such as if it is a
legitimate application or a malicious payload. The file path can indicate where the file was located or executed from,
such as if it was in a temporary or system directory. The Local and Global prevalence can indicate how common or
rare the file is within the environment or across all Falcon customers, which can help assess the risk or impact of the
A benefit of using a threat hunting framework is that it:
A. Automatically generates incident reports
B. Eliminates false positives
C. Provides high fidelity threat actor attribution
D. Provides actionable, repeatable steps to conduct threat hunting
A threat hunting framework is a methodology that guides threat hunters in planning, executing, and improving their
threat hunting activities. A benefit of using a threat hunting framework is that it provides actionable, repeatable steps to
conduct threat hunting in a consistent and efficient manner. A threat hunting framework does not automatically
generate incident reports, eliminate false positives, or provide high fidelity threat actor attribution, as these are
dependent on other factors such as data sources, tools, and analysis skills.
Which of the following is an example of a Falcon threat hunting lead?
A. A routine threat hunt query showing process executions of single letter filename (e.g., a.exe) from temporary
B. Security appliance logs showing potentially bad traffic to an unknown external IP address
C. A help desk ticket for a user clicking on a link in an email causing their machine to become unresponsive and have
high CPU usage
D. An external report describing a unique 5 character file extension for ransomware encrypted files
A Falcon threat hunting lead is a piece of information that can be used to initiate or guide a threat hunting activity
within the Falcon platform. A routine threat hunt query showing process executions of single letter filename (e.g.,
a.exe) from temporary directories is an example of a Falcon threat hunting lead, as it can indicate potential malicious
activity that can be further investigated using Falcon data and features. Security appliance logs, help desk tickets, and
external reports are not examples of Falcon threat hunting leads, as they are not directly related to the Falcon platform
The Falcon Detections page will attempt to decode Encoded PowerShell Command line parameters when which
PowerShell Command line parameter is present?
The Falcon Detections page will attempt to decode Encoded PowerShell Command line parameters when the -
Command parameter is present. The -Command parameter allows PowerShell to execute a specified script block or
string. If the script block or string is encoded using Base64 or other methods, the Falcon Detections page will try to
decode it and show the original command. The - Hidden, -e, and -nop parameters are not related to encoding or
decoding PowerShell commands.
Which structured analytic technique contrasts different hypotheses to determine which is the best leading (prioritized)
A. Model hunting framework
B. Competitive analysis
C. Analysis of competing hypotheses
D. Key assumptions check
Analysis of competing hypotheses is a structured analytic technique that contrasts different hypotheses to determine
which is the best leading (prioritized) hypothesis. It involves listing all the possible hypotheses, identifying the
evidence and assumptions for each hypothesis, evaluating the consistency and reliability of the evidence and
assumptions, and rating the likelihood of each hypothesis based on the evidence and assumptions.
Which SPL (Splunk) field name can be used to automatically convert Unix times (Epoch) to UTC readable time within
the Flacon Event Search?
_time is the SPL (Splunk) field name that can be used to automatically convert Unix times (Epoch) to UTC readable
time within the Falcon Event Search. It is a default field that shows the timestamp of each event in a human-readable
format. utc_time, conv_time, and time are not valid SPL field names for converting Unix times to UTC readable time.
Reference: https://www.crowdstrike.com/blog/tech-center/understanding-timestamps-in- crowdstrike-falcon/
Which of the following would be the correct field name to find the name of an event?
Event_SimpleName is the correct field name to find the name of an event in Falcon Event Search. It is a field that
shows the simplified name of each event type, such as ProcessRollup2, DnsRequest, or FileDelete.
Event_Simple_Name, EVENT_SIMPLE_NAME, and event_simpleName are not valid field names for finding the
name of an event.
Event Search data is recorded with which time zone?
Event Search data is recorded with UTC (Coordinated Universal Time) time zone. UTC is a standard time zone that is
used as a reference point for other time zones. PST (Pacific Standard Time), GMT (Greenwich Mean Time), and EST
(Eastern Standard Time) are not the time zones that Event Search data is recorded with.
Which of the following Event Search queries would only find the DNS lookups to the domain: www randomdomain
A. event_simpleName=DnsRequestDomainName=www randomdomain com
B. event_simpleName=DnsRequestDomainName=randomdomain com ComputerName=localhost
C. Dns=randomdomain com
D. ComputerName=localhost DnsRequest "randomdomain com"
This Event Search query would only find the DNS lookups to the domain www randomdomain com, as it specifies the
exact event type and domain name to match. The other queries would either find other events or domains that are not
relevant to the question.
How do you rename fields while using transforming commands such as table, chart, and stats?
A. By renaming the fields with the "rename" command after the transforming command e.g. "stats count by
ComputerName | rename count AS total_count"
B. You cannot rename fields as it would affect sub-queries and statistical analysis
C. By using the "renamed" keyword after the field name eg "stats count renamed totalcount by ComputerName"
D. By specifying the desired name after the field name eg "stats count totalcount by ComputerName"
The rename command is used to rename fields while using transforming commands such as table, chart, and stats. It
can be used after the transforming command and specify the old and new field names with the AS keyword. You can
rename fields as it would not affect sub-queries and statistical analysis, as long as you use the correct field names in
your queries. The renamed keyword and the desired name after the field name are not valid ways to rename fields.
SPL (Splunk) eval statements can be used to convert Unix times (Epoch) into UTC readable time Which eval function
D. relative time
The strftime eval function is used to convert Unix times (Epoch) into UTC readable time. It takes two arguments: a
Unix time field and a format string that specifies how to display the time. The now, typeof, and relative_time eval
functions are not used to convert Unix times into UTC readable time.
Which of the following queries will return the parent processes responsible for launching badprogram exe?
A. [search (ParentProcess) where name=badprogranrexe ] | table ParentProcessName _time
B. event_simpleName=processrollup2 [search event_simpleName=processrollup2 FileName=badprogram.exe | rename
ParentProcessld_decimal AS TargetProcessld_decimal | fields aid TargetProcessld_decimal] | stats count by FileName
C. [search (ProcessList) where Name=badprogram.exe ] | search ParentProcessName | table ParentProcessName _time
D. event_simpleName=processrollup2 [search event_simpleName=processrollup2 FileName=badprogram.exe | rename
TargetProcessld_decimal AS ParentProcessld_decimal | fields aid TargetProcessld_decimal] | stats count by FileName
This query will return the parent processes responsible for launching badprogram.exe by using a subsearch to find the
processrollup2 events where FileName is badprogram.exe, then renaming the TargetProcessld_decimal field to
ParentProcessld_decimal and using it as a filter for the main search, then using stats to count the occurrences of each
FileName by _time. The other queries will either not return the parent processes or use incorrect field names or syntax.
You want to produce a list of all event occurrences along with selected fields such as the full path, time, username etc.
Which command would be the appropriate choice?
B. distinct count
The table command is used to produce a list of all event occurrences along with selected fields such as the full path,
time, username etc. It takes one or more field names as arguments and displays them in a tabular format. The fields
command is used to keep or remove fields from search results, not to display them in a list. The distinct_count
command is used to count the number of distinct values of a field, not to display them in a list. The values command is
used to display a list of unique values of a field within each group, not to display all event occurrences.
When exporting the results of the following event search, what data is saved in the exported file (assuming Verbose
Mode)? event_simpleName=*Written | stats count by ComputerName
A. The text of the query
B. The results of the Statistics tab
C. No data Results can only be exported when the "table" command is used
D. All events in the Events tab
When exporting the results of an event search, the data that is saved in the exported file depends on the mode and the
tab that is selected. In this case, the mode is Verbose and the tab is Statistics, as indicated by the stats command.
Therefore, the data that is saved in the exported file is the results of the Statistics tab, which shows the count of events
by ComputerName. The text of the query, all events in the Events tab, and no data are not correct answers.
The help desk is reporting an increase in calls related to user accounts being locked out over the last few days. You
suspect that this could be an attack by an adversary against your organization. Select the best hunting hypothesis from
A. A zero-day vulnerability is being exploited on a Microsoft Exchange server
B. A publicly available web application has been hacked and is causing the lockouts
C. Users are locking their accounts out because they recently changed their passwords
D. A password guessing attack is being executed against remote access mechanisms such as VPN
A hunting hypothesis is a statement that describes a possible malicious activity that can be tested with data and
analysis. A good hunting hypothesis should be specific, testable, and relevant to the problem or goal. In this case, the
best hunting hypothesis from the following is that a password guessing attack is being executed against remote access
mechanisms such as VPN, as it explains the possible cause and method of the user account lockouts in a specific and
testable way. A zero-day vulnerability on a Microsoft Exchange server is too vague and does not explain how it relates
to the lockouts. A hacked web application is also too vague and does not specify how it causes the lockouts. Users
locking their accounts out because they recently changed their passwords is not a malicious activity and does not
account for the increase in calls.
To find events that are outliers inside a network,___________is the best hunting method to use.
B. machine learning
Stacking (Frequency Analysis) is the best hunting method to use to find events that are outliers inside a network.
Stacking involves grouping events by a common attribute and counting their frequency, then sorting them by ascending
or descending order to identify rare or common events. This can help find anomalies or deviations from normal
behavior that could indicate malicious activity. Time-based searching, machine learning, and searching are not specific
hunting methods to find outliers.
CrowdStrike’s mature product and proven track record in protecting large-scale Linux deployments for other cloud leaders made it a good fit to handle Zoom’s security needs, says CrowdStrike CEO George Kurtz.
Zoom tapped CrowdStrike to help the videoconferencing giant protect its critical cloud and Linux workloads following the rapid transition to working and socializing from home.
The Sunnyvale, Calif.-based endpoint security vendor said Zoom’s Linux environments and AWS and Oracle cloud were growing very rapidly to accommodate the increased demand for the San Jose, Calif.-based company’s SaaS offering, said CrowdStrike President and CEO George Kurtz. But Zoom’s surge in popularity during the COVID-19 crisis also made it a target for bad actors looking to exploit its success.
CrowdStrike’s mature product and proven track record in protecting large-scale Linux deployments for other cloud leaders made it a strategic cybersecurity partner of choice for Zoom, according to Kurtz.
“Our technology superiority in protecting cloud workloads led to one of our marquee customer wins this quarter,” Kurtz told investors during the company’s earnings call Wednesday.
CrowdStrike’s announcement of a partnership with Zoom Video Communications comes three months after The Information reported that Zoom was in “advanced talks” with Google Cloud regarding the use of a Google security service that alerts users to the dangers of clicking on links associated with malicious websites.
Zoom was expected to use the Google service to flag links to websites that scammers send to users through Zoom’s chat function if the two companies reached a deal, the report said. A spokesperson for Zoom declined to comment on The Information report in June.
CrowdStrike’s revenue for the quarter ended July 31 skyrocketed to $199 million, up 84 percent form $108.1 million a year earlier. That beat Seeking Alpha’s estimate of $188.6 million.
The company’s net loss improved to $29.9 million, or $0.14 per diluted share, which is 42.4 percent better than the net loss of $51.9 million, or $0.40 per diluted share, last year. On a non-GAAP basis, the company recorded net income of $7.9 million, or $0.03 per diluted share, up from a net loss of $23.1 million, or $0.18 per diluted share, the year prior. That beat Seeking Alpha’s non-GAAP net loss estimate of $0.01 per share.
CrowdStrike’s stock fell $7.77 (5.47 percent) to $134.30 in after-hours trading. Earnings were announced after the market closed Wednesday.
Subscription revenue for the quarter jumped to $184.3 million, up 88.8 percent from $97.6 million a year earlier. And professional services revenue for the quarter soared to $14.7 million, up 39.7 percent from $10.5 million last year.
For the quarter ending Oct. 31, CrowdStrike is projecting non-GAAP results between net income of $0.9 million and net loss of $2.2 million, or a net loss of $0.01 to $0.00 per share, on revenue of between $210.6 million and $215 million. Analysts had been projecting a net loss of $0.05 per share on revenue of $195.9 million.
Earning specialized certifications is a surefire way to advance your career in the IT field, regardless of industry or current career level. The right certification validates your skills and knowledge, which makes you more desirable to future employers who want to attract and retain the best employees. Below, we’ll explore the top IT certifications and share how to examine your goals to choose the right path forward.
We’ve narrowed IT certifications into specific categories to help IT professionals assess what’s available and pursue the best certifications to show their willingness to learn and develop the in-demand career skills employers want.
Best database certifications
Database platforms have changed greatly over the years, but database technology remains important for various applications and computing tasks. Available certifications for IT professionals include those for database administrators (DBAs), database developers, data analysts and architects, business intelligence, and data warehousing specialists, and other data professionals.
Obtaining database certifications demonstrates an understanding of database concepts, design, implementation, administration and security. This can boost your credibility in the job market and show potential employers that you have the skills needed to work with databases. The best database certifications include the following:
Best SAS certifications
SAS is one of the world’s leading firms for business analytics, data warehousing and data mining. Today, the SAS Global Certification Program offers 23 credentials across categories including foundation tools, advanced analytics, business intelligence, data management and administration.
SAS programmers remain in high demand, with a quick search of job boards showing thousands of open positions. Obtaining SAS certification shows employers that you are proficient in the company’s popular suite of tools. Some of SAS’s certification programs include the following:
Many professionals earn certifications to help navigate their career paths. According to the IT Salary Report, 92 percent of information technology professionals have at least one certification.
Best Cisco certifications
Cisco Systems is a market leader not only in networking and communications products, but also storage networking and solutions for data centers. Cisco offers a variety of certifications for IT professionals, ranging from entry level credentials to expert-level exams.
These certifications prepare professionals for Cisco-related careers. A search of job boards reveals thousands of open positions for Cisco experts, underscoring the continued relevance of these skills. Some of Cisco’s certifications include the following:
Best Dell certifications
Dell Technologies remains one of the world’s leading computing companies. In addition to its well-known hardware lineup, Dell also offers solutions for networks, storage, servers, gateways and embedded computing, as well as a broad range of IT and business services.
Becoming certified in Dell products can help make IT professionals competitive in engineering roles for server, virtualization, networking, systems, integration and data security. Additional roles include consultants, account executives, system administrators, IT managers and deployment managers.
Best mobility certifications
In the mobile era, it has become increasingly important for network engineers to support local, remote and mobile users, as well as provide proper infrastructure. The focus on application and app development now leans more toward mobile environments, requiring security professionals to thoroughly address mobility from all perspectives.
Due to the fast-changing nature of mobile technology, not many mobility certifications have become widely adopted. However, a few of the top mobility certifications can help IT professionals stand out in this rapidly evolving field.
If part of your job includes selling and implementing an IT solution, you may want to pursue the best sales certifications. You’ll show your organization that you’re willing to go above and beyond to reach sales targets.
Best computer hardware certifications
As remote and computer-based work has become more common, it’s more important than ever that businesses and individuals be able to maintain their hardware. While discussions about potential computer-related jobs often revolve around software work and coding, jumping into the IT field by becoming a computer technician is an excellent starting point.
Today, thousands of hardware technician jobs are available across the country. Entering this industry becomes more accessible for those who acquire computer hardware certifications. These certifications can showcase your expertise and proficiency in the upkeep of computers, mobile devices, printers and other hardware components.
Best Google Cloud certifications
IT pros with solid cloud computing skills continue to be in high demand as more companies adopt cloud technologies. Today, Google Cloud is one of the market leaders in the cloud computing space.
Regardless of where you are in your IT career, engaging with certification programs can demonstrate your willingness to keep on top of rapidly evolving cloud technologies. To that end, Google has introduced a host of certifications for its cloud platform, including the following:
Best evergreen IT certifications
In the fast-changing world of technology, it can help to focus on certifications that have stood the test of time. “Evergreen” refers to certifications that remain popular year after year.
The top evergreen certifications are based on latest pay surveys in IT, reports from IT professionals about certifications they want or pursue the most, and those that appear most frequently in online job postings. Obtaining these credentials is one step toward ensuring that your skills remain relevant for a long time:
Best IT governance certifications
IT governance provides structure for aligning a company’s IT with its business strategies. Organizations faced with compliance rigors always need experienced IT pros who can see the big picture and understand technology risks. This means certified IT governance professionals are likely to remain in high demand.
Earning one of the following certifications proves a commitment to understanding the role of IT governance and its position in a company’s current and future success. Getting certified can validate your expert knowledge and lead to advanced career opportunities.
Best system administrator certifications
An IT system administrator is responsible for managing and maintaining the information technology infrastructure within an organization. The position demands sought-after career skills, ranging from configuring and maintaining servers and clients to managing access controls, network services, and addressing application resource requirements.
If you’re in charge of managing modern servers, there’s a long list of tools and technologies that system administrators must master. Obtaining some of the most prominent system administrator certifications can demonstrate your mastery to potential employers.
Best ITIL certifications
ITIL, or Information Technology Infrastructure Library, was developed to establish standardized best practices for IT services within government agencies. Over the ensuing four decades, businesses of all types embraced, modified, and extended ITIL, shaping it into a comprehensive framework for managing IT service delivery.
The ITIL framework remains the benchmark for best practices in IT service and delivery management, offering certification programs that cater to IT professionals at all levels. These training and certification courses ensure that IT professionals stay well-prepared for the ongoing evolution in IT service delivery management. There are four certifications in the ITIL certification program:
Best enterprise architect certifications
An IT enterprise architect is responsible for designing and managing the overall structure and framework of an organization’s information technology system. Enterprise architect certifications are among the highest that an IT professional can achieve; fewer than 1 percent ultimately reach this level.
Enterprise architects are among the highest-paid employees and consultants in the tech industry. These certifications can put IT professionals on a path to many lucrative positions. The average worker earns over six figures annually. Some top enterprise architect certifications are listed below:
To become an enterprise IT architect, you’ll need knowledge of systems deployment, design and architecture, as well as a strong business foundation.
Best CompTIA certifications
CompTIA is a nonprofit trade association made up of more than 2,000 member organizations and 3,000 business partners. The organization’s vendor-neutral certification program is one of the best recognized in the IT industry. Since CompTIA developed its A+ credential in 1993, it has issued more than two million certifications.
CompTIA certifications are grouped by skill set and focus on the real-world skills IT professionals need. Armed with these credentials, you can demonstrate that you know how to manage and support IT infrastructure.
Best Oracle certifications
A longtime leader in database software, Oracle also offers cloud solutions, servers, engineered systems, storage, and more. The company has more than 430,000 customers in 175 countries.
Today, Oracle’s training program offers six certification levels that span 16 product categories with more than 200 individual credentials. Considering the depth and breadth of this program — and the number of Oracle customers — it’s no surprise that Oracle certifications are highly sought after.
Vendor-specific certifications address a particular vendor’s hardware and software. For example, you can pursue Oracle certifications and Dell certifications to become an expert in those companies’ environments.
Best business continuity and disaster recovery certifications
Business continuity and disaster recovery keep systems running and data available in the event of interruptions or faults. These programs bring systems back to normal operation after a disaster has occurred.
Business continuity and disaster recovery certifications are seeing a healthy uptrend as new cloud-based tools grow in popularity. While business continuity planning and disaster recovery planning have always been essential, they’re becoming more critical than ever — and IT certifications are following suit.
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A new study suggests getting that cute dog in one's more mature years might be a good idea after all.
Researchers from the Sun Yat-sen University in Guangzhou, China, found that pet ownership can be associated with slower rates of developing dementia.
The study, published on Tuesday in JAMA Network Open, determined that owning a pet made a difference in verbal memory and fluency among adults who lived alone.
The study's author, professor Ciyong Lu, said in the study that slower rates of declining verbal memory and fluency were seen in those who lived alone — but not in those who lived with others.
"Pet ownership offset the associations between living alone and declining rates [of] verbal memory and verbal fluency," he said.
The research involved more than 7,900 participants over the age of 50, with roughly 35% of them owning pets and 27% of them living alone.
In the study, Lu said that those living alone with a pet showed slower rates of developing signs of dementia.
"These findings suggest that pet ownership may be associated with slower cognitive decline among older adults living alone," he said.
"Contrary to living alone," the authors also wrote, "pet ownership (for example, raising dogs and cats) is related to reduced loneliness, an important risk factor for dementia and cognitive decline."
Lu said that clinical trials will be necessary in order to confirm the study's findings.
Currently, more than 55 million people worldwide have dementia — with nearly 10 million new cases each year, according to the World Health Organization (WHO).
Alzheimer's disease is the most common form of dementia, which is currently the 7th leading cause of death, the WHO also notes.
Early symptoms of dementia include forgetfulness, being confused, losing track of time, misjudging distances, feeling anxious, personality changes, inappropriate behavior and more.
There is currently no cure for dementia or for someone developing signs of dementia, but the WHO suggests that staying active and continuing to stimulate the brain may help.
Fox News Digital reached out to Lu for further comment.
The latest weight loss craze could also help people control their drinking.
Semaglutide treatments such as Ozempic and Wegovy have been shown to reduce the symptoms of alcohol use disorder (AUD), according to a study published in The Journal of Clinical Psychiatry on Nov. 27.
The collaborative study from The University of Oklahoma (OU) and Oklahoma State University (OSU) found a “significant and noteworthy decrease” in the Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT) scores of six patients who were receiving semaglutide treatment for weight loss.
Lead study author Dr. Jesse Richards, director of obesity medicine and assistant professor of medicine at the OU-TU School of Community Medicine, said the study was inspired by his conversation with Dr. Kyle Simmons, professor of pharmacology and physiology at the OSU Center for Health Sciences.
“I had been hearing from a significant number of patients that their alcohol intake was spontaneously decreasing while [they were] on the medication,” Richards told Fox News Digital.
As a bariatric surgery clinic employee, Richards noted that it’s standard to screen patients for alcohol use.
At the clinic, a number of patients tested positive for alcohol consumption, sometimes in concerning amounts.
Later, while on semaglutide medication, they reported reduced alcohol intake.
One of Richards’ patients — who previously drank large amounts of alcohol — shared a new inability to drink more than two cans of beer now because it “just doesn’t sound good.”
This response piqued Richards’ interest in learning more about patients’ aversion to alcohol, which directly correlated to his research.
Research has shown that this effect is “mediated through adjustments in the reward pathway in the brain,” he said.
“The GLP-1s are actually modifying dopamine, decreasing the craving and decreasing the motivation to acquire things in that compulsive intake category.”
The most surprising takeaway from the study, Richards said, was that the same significant treatment response was seen even at very low doses.
“We found that even patients on the lowest dose of semaglutide — a quarter milligram — had a quite significant and relatively … quick onset reduction in alcohol intake,” he said.
Of the six patients studied, all but one were on low doses — from a quarter to a half milligram.
“And that’s very encouraging because we know that the lower doses of these medications are tolerated much better,” said Richards.
While the results seem promising, the doctor said he does not recommend that patients use semaglutide treatments for alcohol use disorder at this time, due to supply and safety issues.
“If patients have [obesity and diabetes] indications for the medication and they also struggle with alcohol intake … having them on this treatment may potentially be beneficial,” Richards said.
“But because there has been a global medication shortage, and because we don’t have prospective trials and don’t know what the specific safety is versus the well-established safety data in obesity and diabetes, [I] would not recommend it just for patients who have AUD.”
There are three FDA-approved drugs available for alcoholic use disorder that are currently underused, the doctor noted.
Given that five million people in the U.S. are currently taking semaglutide medications, if it is proven that those drugs have a significant effect on alcohol use disorder, “by default, they are going to become the most widely used drug to Boost these symptoms — just by virtue of the fact that so many people are on them for diabetes or obesity,” Richards noted.
He confirmed that additional research is underway with two ongoing trials.
“Since we were able to show clinically meaningful reductions in alcohol intake and AUD symptomatology in a real-world setting, that bodes very well for these types of medications,” he said.
Looking ahead, Richard said there is a need for higher-quality evidence of the medication’s impact on AUD compared to placebo drugs or environmental factors.
Even though it’s unclear whether GLP-1 producers will market the medication to AUD patients in the future, Richards said this could become an “established medical practice once the safety and efficacy has been determined.”
For patients who struggle with AUD, Richards recommended they talk to their health care providers about available treatment.
He also alerted patients that if they experience a reduced appetite and usually consume “a bunch of calories” in alcohol, it may be necessary to look into a more balanced diet.
Avantika Waring, 9amHealth’s chief medical officer and a trained physician and endocrinologist in San Francisco, applauded the OU and OSU study findings for further supporting what clinicians “are already seeing in practice,” she told Fox News Digital.
“GLP-1 medications have a lot of effects that we are still learning about, and the ability to decrease cravings and the reward signals related to alcohol use are just some of the benefits,” she said.
“It’s an important starting point for further clinical trials,” she added.
Waring also warned that GLP-1 medications should not be used to treat AUD specifically, as they can cause side effects such as nausea and changes in appetite.
“People struggling with alcohol use disorder should consult with their physicians before starting GLP-1 medications to make sure that they can stay hydrated and safe on therapy,” she said.
Waring noted that if ongoing clinical trials find semaglutide treatments to be effective for AUD, the medical community will “have another tool to help people living with alcohol addiction and we’ll see expanded use of these already popular drugs.”
Fox News Digital reached out to Novo Nordisk for comment on the potential link between semaglutide medications and alcohol use disorder.
They say that there's no sense in crying over spilled milk. But what do they know? Crying can get you another glass of milk if you do it loud enough. Plus, crying may serve a real physiologic purpose, according to a study published recently in Emotion, meaning the journal and not in an Emo-kind of way.
For the study, three researchers from the University of Queensland (Leah S. Sharman, Genevieve A. Dingle, and Eric J. Vanman) and one from Tilberg University (Ad J. J. M. Vingerhoets) recruited 197 female undergraduate students. They said that they choose all women rather than including men because pilot testing of sad videos had revealed that more women than men cried or at least more women revealed that they were crying. This did not account for the men who cried inside or used some bro-language or high fives to hide the crying.
The research team then showed each of the study participants either a video that are supposed to make them feel sad (sad videos) or a video that was not supposed to elicit any emotion (neutral videos) like something from a documentary or a ted talk. Each video lasted for close to 18 minutes. After the video, the researchers noted whether or not each participant had cried while watching the video. Ultimately, 65 participants watched the neutral video, 71 watched the sad video and cried during it, and 61 watched the sad video and did not cry. Presumably, no one cried during the neutral video. But then again, actor Bryce Dallas Howard was able to cry when Conan O'Brien talked about Home Depot in this Conan clip:
Then, each participant underwent a Cold Pressor Stress Test (CPT), which involved placing the participant's left hand, up to the wrist, in cold 0° to 5°C water. Unless you are the Iceman or Killer Frost, this is supposed to be painful. The research team measured how long each participant could stay in this position until pulling her hand out of the water. During the study, the research team continuously measured each participant's heart rate and respiratory rate and periodically measured cortisol levels from saliva samples. Cortisol is a stress-hormone that's produced by the body.
Also, at four points during the study, participants answered questions from the Positive and Negative Affect Scale short form (PANAS). These questions asked the degree to which the participant was experiencing ten different emotions and to rank each on a five-point scale that ranged from a one (very slightly or not at all) to a five (extremely).
When it came to cortisol levels and how long the participants could keep their hands submerged in the cold water, the study ended up finding not much difference between the neutral video watchers, the sad video non-criers, and the sad video criers. So if you are about to dunk yourself in cold water or take a cold shower, it may not help to cry first.
But here's a difference that the study found. Are you ready? Take a deep breath. The difference was breathing rates. While watching the videos, the non-criers tended to have elevations in their breathing rates, whereas, by contrast, the criers tended to maintain their initial breathing rates. In other words, tearing up could have helped participants better control their breathing rates. This provides further evidence that crying may help you better regulate arousal, serving as an emotional release.
Another interesting finding was that right before crying, participants tended to experience decreases in their heart rates, seemingly in anticipation of the crying. Once the crying began, their heart rates then tended to creep back up but not above where their heart rates had been before everything began. This may be further evidence that crying has a beneficial regulatory effect on your physiology.
So perhaps next time you start crying you can tell people that you are regulating your physiology. You've probably heard of people saying that they had a good cry and feel better after they've let the tears flow. It can be important to find reasonable ways to periodically release your emotions. Otherwise, you may end up bottling everything up like a hot air balloon that can explode when you least expect it.
Moreover, crying can be a way of communicating. It's really the only way that babies can express their needs before they learn how to say things like "why you throwing shade on me," or "I'm not Gucci." Crying can help communicate to others that you need more sympathy, comfort, or help. Of course, this can be misused. You don't want to cry every time your order at a restaurant doesn't come out right. And of course, there is the whole concept of crocodile tears: people crying to get something when they don't really mean it.
Crying can also be a way of communicating with yourself. Even when you cry alone, you may be telling yourself about your own state because, like many people, you could be terrible at memorizing your own emotions and situation. Tears could be your body's way of saying, "hey, take a break," or "something's not right," or "take care of yourself." Tearing up can then be a way of your body literally crying out to you.
Your body is a complex system. Crying can be complex. Your tears can flow when you are very sad, very angry, or even very happy. Better understanding what causes us to cry and what happens as a result could help us better handle our emotions and stress.
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